Test Bank For Basic & Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices, 4th Edition Paula R Howard | Complete Guide 2023/2024

The Occupation Safety and Health Administration does not require the routine use of gloves by phlebotomists working with healthy prescreened donors or changing unsoiled gloves between donors. ANS: T Because the risk of exposure is minimal with blood donors, the Occupation Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) does not require gloves, or if gloves are worn, OSHA does not require that unsoiled gloves be changed between donors. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 15 2. All accidents, even minor ones, must be reported to a supervisor. ANS: T The Occupational Safety and Health Administration, workers’ compensation, and other regulatory agencies require reporting all accidents, and an investigation to avoid other injuries is mandatory. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 16 3. Quality control is the same as quality assurance. ANS: F Quality control is performed on reagents and equipment; quality assurance is a system to ensure safe and effective products. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 5 Powered by TCPDF () Chapter 02: Immunology: Basic Principles and Applications in the Blood Bank Howard: Basic & Applied Concepts of Blood Banking and Transfusion Practices, 4th Edition MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Select the cell involved in humoral immunity. a. Neutrophils b. T lymphocytes c. B lymphocytes d. Monocytes ANS: C B lymphocytes have the ability to transform into plasma cells to produce antibodies, which is considered a humoral response. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 23 2. What process is described by opsonization? a. Lysis of cells b. Binding to cells or antigens c. Ingestion of cells d. Phagocytosis ANS: B Opsonization promotes phagocytosis by binding to cells or antigens. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 35 3. Select the term that describes cells or tissue from a genetically different individual within the same species. a. Allogeneic b. Autologous c. Xenogeneic d. Autograft ANS: A Allogeneic cells or tissue come from a genetically different individual within the same species. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 33 4. Select the substance that regulates the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors. a. Cytokines b. Complement c. Immunoglobulins d. Anaphylatoxin ANS: A Cytokines are proteins secreted by cells that regulate the activity of other cells by binding to specific receptors. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 23 5. Which of the following is responsible for the activation of the classic pathway of complement? a. Bacteria b. Foreign proteins c. Virus d. Antibody bound to antigen ANS: D An antigen-antibody complex activates the classical complement cascade, whereas bacterial membranes activate the alternative pathway. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 33 6. What biological molecules are considered the most immunogenic? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Proteins d. Enzymes ANS: C Protein molecules are the most immunogenic, followed by carbohydrates and lipids, which tend to be immunologically inert. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 24 7. What part of the immunoglobulin molecule distinguishes the isotype? a. Light chain b. Heavy chain c. Kappa chain d. Lambda chain ANS: B The five distinctive heavy-chain molecules distinguish the class or isotype. Each heavy chain imparts characteristic features, which permit them to have unique biological functions. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 24 8. Select the immunoglobulin class produced first in the primary immune response. a. IgG b. IgE c. IgA d. IgM ANS: D IgM antibodies are produced first, followed by the production of IgG antibodies. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 28 9. In a serologic test, the term prozone is also known as: a. equivalence. b. antigen excess. c. antibody excess. d. serum-to-cell ratio. ANS: C Antibody excess is termed prozone, often leading to a false-negative reaction. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 38 10. What is the potential effect in a tube agglutination test if a red cell suspension with a concentration greater than 5% is used? a. False negatives b. False positives c. Hemolysis d. No effect ANS: A Antigen excess is termed postzone and will lessen the reaction, causing a false-negative. DIF: Level 3 REF: p. 38 11. After adding antigen and antibody to a test tube, one large agglutinate was observed. How should this reaction be graded? a. 2+ b. 3+ c. 4+ d. 0 ANS: C One large agglutinate is graded a 4+ reaction. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 39 12. Select the portion of the antibody molecule that imparts the antibody’s unique class function. a. Constant region of the heavy chain b. Constant region of the light chain c. Variable region of the heavy chain d. Variable region of the light chain ANS: A The heavy-chain constant region has the function of the class. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 26 13. What portion of the antibody molecule binds to receptors on macrophages and assists in the removal of antibody bound to red cells? a. Fab fragment b. Hinge region c. Fc fragment d. J chain ANS: C The Fc portion of the antibody binds to the macrophage, which then carries the antigenantibody complex to the spleen for removal. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 26 14. Select the region of the antibody molecule responsible for imparting unique antibody specificity. a. Variable region b. Constant region c. Hinge region d. Fc fragment ANS: A The variable region is the unique antigen-binding site that gives each antibody its specificity. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 26 15. What immunoglobulin class is capable of crossing the placenta? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgE d. IgG ANS: D Only IgG can cross the placenta as a result of IgG receptor binding sites on placental cells. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 26 16. What immunoglobulin class reacts best at room temperature at immediate-spin? a. IgM b. IgA c. IgE d. IgG ANS: A IgM is a large immunoglobulin with multiple binding sites that is detectable at room temperature and the immediate-spin phase. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 27 17. An antigen that originates from the individual is termed: a. autologous. b. allogeneic. c. hapten. d. immunogen. ANS: A Autologous is a term that refers to cells or tissue from self. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 33 18. Which of the following will cause an antigen to elicit a greater immune response? a. Small antigen size b. Composed largely of carbohydrates c. Size greater than 10,000 daltons d. Similarity to the host ANS: C Antigens will elicit a better immune response if they are larger than 10,000 daltons, are foreign to the host, and are made of proteins. DIF: Level 1 REF: p. 25 19. Extravascular destruction of blood cells occurs in the: a. blood vessels. b. lymph nodes. c. spleen. d. thymus. ANS: C Extravascular destruction of blood cells is initiated by macrophage interaction with IgG molecules attached to red cells that transport the red cells to the spleen for clearance. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 35 20. An antibody identified in the transfusion service appeared to be reacting stronger following the second exposure to an antigen from a transfusion. The most likely explanation of this observation is: a. affinity maturation of the immunoglobulin molecule. b. anamnestic response. c. isotype switching. d. All of the above ANS: D Genetic changes in the variable region, stimulation of memory B cells, and class switching contribute to the increased strength and specificity of an antibody following the second exposure to an antigen. DIF: Level 3 REF: p. 29 21. Which of the following components in the complement cascade mediates the lysis of the target cells? a. C1qrs b. C4a, C3a, and C5a c. C5 to C9 d. C3a and C3b ANS: C The membrane attack complex includes the C5 to C9 proteins that mediate lysis of the target cell. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 34 22. Which of the following requires adjustment in order to enhance the reaction of an antibody in vitro? a. Temperature above 37°C b. Speed of the centrifuge above the calibrated settings c. Increase the concentration of red cells in the test system d. Increase the incubation time in the incubator ANS: D Increasing incubation time is effective in increasing antibody reactions; however, optimal temperatures, centrifugation, and antigen concentrations are normally not altered when performing routine transfusion service testing. DIF: Level 3 REF: p. 37 23. Hemolysis was observed at room temperature when testing a patient’s serum with reagent red cells used for screening. When this test was repeated using the patient’s plasma, no hemolysis was observed. What was the most likely explanation for the different reactions? a. The plasma sample was collected incorrectly. b. The serum sample was contaminated. c. Complement activation was inhibited by calcium in the plasma sample. d. The serum sample was fresher. ANS: C Complement can be activated by some red cell antibodies; however, fresh serum samples are necessary to observe this reaction. Plasma samples contain calcium to inhibit the coagulation cascade, which also will inhibit complement activation. DIF: Level 3 REF: p. 33 24. Which immunoglobulin class is impacted by the zeta potential in a hemagglutination test? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgE ANS: B IgG is a small molecule that cannot span the distance between red cells suspended in saline. The zeta potential prevents direct agglutination with IgG molecules. DIF: Level 2 REF: p. 37 25. When testing for the A antigen in a patient, what would you use to perform the test? a. Patient’s plasma and ............