ATI GI System Practice Questions and Answers 2023

ATI GI System Practice Questions and Answers 2023 A nurse is teaching a client with Barrett's esophagus who is scheduled to undergo an esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD). Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching? A. "This procedure is performed to measure the presence of acid in your esophagus." B. "This procedure can determine how well the lower part of your esophagus works." C. "This procedure is performed while you are under general anesthesia." D. "This procedure can determine if you have colon cancer." Correct Answer: B. "This procedure can determine how well the lower part of your esophagus works." An EGD is useful in determining the function of the esophageal lining and the extent of inflammation, potential scarring, and strictures. Incorrect Answers:A. A pH probe study, which involves the insertion of a specially designed probe into the distal esophagus, is performed to monitor for the presence of acid in the normally alkaline esophagus. C. An EGD is performed while the client receives moderate sedation. D. A colonoscopy is performed to detect colon cancer. A nurse is caring for a client who has acute pancreatitis. Which of the following serum laboratory values should return to the expected reference range within 72 hr of treatment beginning? A. Aldolase B. Lipase C. Amylase D. Lactic dehydrogenase Correct Answer: C. Amylase Pancreatitis is the most common diagnosis for marked elevations in serum amylase. Serum amylase begins to increase about 3 to 6 hours following the onset of acute pancreatitis. The amylase level peaks in 20 to 30 hours and returns to the expected reference range within 2 to 3 days. Incorrect Answers:A. Elevated aldolase levels are caused by inflammation of the muscles, also known as myositis. Aldolase levels are not affected by pancreatic disorders. B. Lipase levels in clients who have pancreatitis increase after a rise in serum amylase and stay elevated for up to 14 days longer than amylase levels. D. Lactic dehydrogenase (LDH) increases are typically seen in clients who have anemia, leukemia, or liver damage. A nurse is assessing a client who has a bleeding duodenal ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Emesis with a coffee-ground appearance B. Increased blood pressure C. Decreased heart rate D. Bright green stools Correct Answer: A. Emesis with a coffee-ground appearance The nurse should expect a client who has a bleeding duodenal ulcer to have emesis that resembles coffee-grounds or is bright red in color. Hematemesis indicates upper gastrointestinal bleeding, occurring at or above the duodenojejunal junction. Incorrect Answers:B. A client who has a bleeding duodenal ulcer will have a decreased blood pressure due to bleeding and fluid loss. C. A client who has a bleeding duodenal ulcer will have a decreased heart rate due to bleeding and fluid loss. D. A client who has a bleeding duodenal ulcer will have melena stools, which are tarry or dark in color and sticky. A nurse is providing teaching to the guardian of a child who has celiac disease. Which of the following foods should the nurse instruct the guardian to omit from the child's diet? A. Cornflakes B. Reduced-fat milk C. Canned fruits D. Wheat bread Correct Answer: D. Wheat bread Clients who have celiac disease should eliminate as much gluten as possible from their diets. Wheat, rye, and barley contain gluten and should be eliminated from the diet of a child who has celiac disease. Incorrect Answers:A. Cornflakes do not contain gluten and do not have to be omitted from the diet of a child who has celiac disease. B. Milk is gluten-free and does not have to be eliminated from the diet of a child who has celiac disease. C. Canned fruits without additives are gluten-free and do not have to be eliminated from the diet of a child who has celiac disease. A nurse is planning an in-service training session regarding nutrition. Which of the following minerals should the nurse identify as involved in oxygen transportation? A. Zinc B. Iron C. Phosphorus D. Magnesium Correct Answer: B. Iron Iron transports oxygen by means of hemoglobin and myoglobin. It is also a component of enzyme systems. Incorrect Answers:A. Zinc plays a role in tissue growth and wound healing and supports immune function, but it does not affect oxygen transport. C. Phosphorus plays a role in bone and teeth formation and energy metabolism, but it does not affect oxygen transport. D. Magnesium affects enzyme and neurochemical activities and the excitability of cardiac and skeletal muscles, but it does not affect oxygen transport. A nurse is presenting an in-service training session about nutrition. How many of the amino acids must be obtained from dietary intake? A. 6 B. 9 C. 11 D. 15 Correct Answer: B. 9 Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids, which are composed of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen. Nine amino acids are considered essential for the human body and must be obtained from diet. These include histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine. Incorrect Answers:A. C. D. Of the 20 amino acids identified, the body is able to manufacture 11. These are defined as nonessential amino acids. A nurse is teaching dietary-modification strategies to a client who has been newly diagnosed with cirrhosis. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend? A. Grilled chicken B. Potato soup C. Fish sticks D. Baked ham Correct Answer: A. Grilled chicken The nurse should identify that a client who has cirrhosis requires protein to compensate for disease-related weight loss. Increasing protein intake from animal or plant sources will also provide the client with more energy. Incorrect Answers:B. A client who has cirrhosis should avoid foods that are high in sodium content, especially if ascites is present; therefore, the nurse should recommend another food choice. C. A client who has cirrhosis should avoid foods that are high in fat, especially if the client is experiencing steatorrhea; therefore, the nurse should recommend another food choice. D. A client who has cirrhosis should avoid foods that are high in sodium, especially if ascites is present; therefore, the nurse should recommend another food choice. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has dumping syndrome following gastric bypass surgery 4 days ago. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching? A. Avoid foods containing protein B. Drink liquids during each meal C. Eat foods that contain simple sugars D. Maintain a supine position after meals Correct Answer: D. Maintain a supine position after meals The nurse should instruct the client to lie supine after eating to help slow the rapid emptying of food into the small intestine. A client who has dumping syndrome should decrease the amount of food eaten at once, eat small meals more frequently, and eliminate fluids at mealtime. Fluid shifts occur in the upper gastrointestinal tract when food contents and simple sugars exit the stomach too rapidly, attracting fluid into the upper intestine and decreasing blood volume, which causes the client to experience nausea and vomiting, sweating, syncope, palpitations, increased heart rate, and hypotension. Incorrect Answers:A. The nurse should instruct the client to include foods containing protein at each meal and only to eat 1 or 2 foods from each food group at once. Protein, fats, and complex carbohydrates are better tolerated by a client who recently had gastric bypass surgery. B. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid drinking liquids during meals and to wait 30 to 60 minutes after eating solid foods to drink liquids. Drinking liquids with meals increases the motility of the gastrointestinal tract. C. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid eating foods that contain simple sugars. Simple sugars increase the hypertonicity of the gastrointestinal tract, which increases the movement of the food bolus. A community health nurse is planning an educational program about hepatitis A. When preparing the materials, the nurse should identify that which of the following groups is most at risk for developing hepatitis A? A. Children B. Older adults C. Women who are pregnant D. Middle-aged men Correct Answer: A. Children The nurse should apply the safety and risk-reduction priority-setting framework, which assigns priority to the factor or situation posing the greatest safety risk to the client. When there are several risks to client safety, the one posing the greatest threat is the highest priority. The nurse should use Maslow's hierarchy of needs, the ABC priority-setting framework, and/or nursing knowledge to identify which risk poses the greatest threat to the client. The hepatitis A virus can be contracted from the feces, bile, and blood of infected clients. The usual mode of transmission is the fecal-oral route. Children and young adults are most often affected by the hepatitis A virus. Typically, a child or young adult acquires the infection at school, through poor hygiene, through hand-to-mouth contact, or via another form of close contact. Incorrect Answers:B. Older adults are not often affected by or at risk for developing hepatitis A. C. Women who are pregnant are not often affected by or at risk for developing hepatitis A. D. Middle-aged men are not often affected by or at risk for developing hepatitis A. A nurse is demonstrating colostomy care to a client who has a new colostomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse teach the client to perform? (Select all that apply.) A. Use antimicrobial ointment on the peristomal skin B. Empty the bag when it is one-third to one-half full C. Cut the skin barrier opening a little larger than the ostomy D. Wash the peristomal skin with mild soap and water E. Apply the skin barrier while the skin is slightly moist Correct Answers: B. Empty the bag when it is one-third to one-half full C. Cut the skin barrier opening a little larger than the ostomy D. Wash the peristomal skin with mild soap and water Allowing the bag to become too full can cause leakage. The client should cut an opening that is about 1/16 to 1/8 larger than the stoma to avoid applying any constricting pressure to the stoma. The client should avoid moisturizing soaps because lubricants can affect adhesion of the appliance. Incorrect Answers:A. Oil-based ointments on the skin disrupt adhesion, and antimicrobials are not necessary unless prescribed by the provider to treat an infection. E. The skin must be dry before applying the skin barrier since the pouch will not adhere to moist skin. A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has GERD. The nurse should expect the client to report which of the following manifestations? (Select all that apply.) A. Regurgitation B. Nausea C. Belching D. Heartburn E. Weight loss Correct Answers: A. Regurgitation B. Nausea C. Belching D. Heartburn Regurgitation and heartburn are primary manifestations of GERD. Nausea and belching are also common manifestations. Incorrect Answer:E. Clients who have GERD rarely experience unplanned weight loss.