Atpl bristolgs general navigation exam 4 2023 update

Atpl bristolgs general navigation exam 4 2023 updateAtpl bristolgs general navigation exam 4 2023 update Exam 4, 54 questions; 73 marks; time allowed 2 hours 1. The rhumb-line distance between points A (60°00'N 002°30'E) and B (60º00'N 007°30W) is: (a) 150 NM (b) 300 NM (c) 450 NM (d) 600 NM (1) 2. An aircraft at latitude 02°20'N tracks 180º(T) for 685 km. On completion of the flight the latitude will be: (a) 03°50'S (b) 04°10'S (c) 04°30'S (d) 09°05'S (2) 3. What is the final position after the following rhumb line tracks and distances have been followed from position 60°00'N 030°00'W? South for 3600 NM, East for 3600 NM, North for 3600NM, West for 3600 NM. The final position of the aircraft is: (a) 59°00'N 060°00'W (b) 60°00'N 030°00'E (c) 60°00'N 090°00'W (d) 59°00'N 090°00'W (2) 4. You are flying from A to B in the northern hemisphere. Your initial great circle track is 273°T and conversion angle is 6°. The rhumb line track from A to B is: (a) 279°T (b) 276°T (c) 270°T (d) 267°T (1) 5. An aircraft flies a rhumb line track from A (160°E) to B (170°W) at the same latitude in the Northern hemisphere. Its groundspeed is 300 knots and the flight takes three hours. The latitude of the aircraft is: (a) 30°N (b) 45°N (c) 60°N (d) 75°N (2) 6. What is the approximate date of perihelion, when the Earth is nearest to the Sun ? (a) beginning of July (b) end of December (c) beginning of January (d) end of March (1) 7. The highest latitude at which the sun will be visible above the horizon every day is: (a) 62° (b) 64° (c) 66° (d) 68° (1) 8. An aircraft plans to depart San Juan, Puerto Rico (18°N 066°W) 30 minutes before sunrise on 28th March and will arrive four hours and fifteen minutes later at Santa Maria, Azores (37°N 025°W). If the difference between standard time and UTC is four hours in San Juan and one hour in the Azores and Summer Time is not applicable the local mean time of arrival at Santa Maria will be: (a) 1202 (b) 1208 (c) 1227 (d) 1245 (2) 9. When is the magnetic compass most effective? (a) On the geographic equator (b) In the region of the magnetic North Pole. (c) About midway between the magnetic poles (d) In the region of the magnetic South Pole. (1) 10. The main advantage of a remote indicating compass over a direct reading compass is that it: (a) has less moving parts (b) senses, rather than seeks, the magnetic meridian (c) requires less maintenance (d) is able to magnify the earth's magnetic field in order to attain greater accuracy 11. Scale on a Lambert's conformal chart is: (1) (a) constant over the whole chart (b) constant along a meridian of longitude (c) constant along a parallel of latitude (d) varies with latitude and longitude (1) 12. The most likely use for an Oblique Mercator chart is: (a) charts for intercontinental flights following great circle tracks (b) maps of countries with considerable North/South extent but very little East/West extent (c) trans-polar navigation (d) global depiction of magnetic variation (1) 13. A line is drawn on a Lamberts Conformal chart which follows a parallel of latitude between 007°20'E and 003°30'E and represents 135 nm. The parallel of latitude on which the line is drawn is: (a) 36° (b) 50° (c) 54° (d) 60° (2) 14. On a Transverse Mercator chart a straight line is drawn representing 200 nm which is perpendicular to, and originates from, the central meridian. It is a: (a) small circle (b) rhumb line (c) great circle (d) a curve concave to the prime meridian (1) 15. What is the symbol for an FIR boundary ? (a) (b) (c) (d) ............................ (1) 16. If the rhumb line distance of the 53°N parallel of latitude is measured on a Mercator chart as 133 cm the scale of the chart at 30°S is ? (a) 1: (b) 1: (c) 1: (d) 1: (2) 17. A chart distance represents 120nm at 15°S on a direct Mercator chart. What earth distance does the same chart distance represent at 10°N ? (a) 118.3 nm (b) 124.2 nm (c) 122.3 nm (d) 117.7 nm (2) 18. Where is the scale correct on a Transverse Mercator chart ? (a) at the Standard Parallels (b) along the central meridian and its anti-meridian (c) at the Parallel of Origin (d) scale is constant over the entire chart (1) 19. An aircraft is using a southern hemisphere Lamberts chart with a 'standard' grid (i.e. a grid aligned with the Greenwich meridian) and the Constant of the Cone is given as 0.9. If the aircraft is at 080°W steering a heading of 190°G with 10°S drift its true track will be: (a) 272° (b) 128° (c) 282° (d) 200° (1) 20. Given: TAS = 155 kt, HDG (T) = 216° W/V = 090/60kt. Calculate the Track (ºT) and GS? (a) 226 - 186 kt (b) 224 - 175 kt (c) 222 - 181 kt (d) 231 - 196 kt (1) 21. A useful method of a pilot resolving, during a visual flight, any uncertainty in the aircraft's position is to maintain visual contact with the ground and: (a) fly the reverse of the heading being flown prior to becoming uncertain until a pinpoint is obtained (b) set heading towards a line feature such as a coastline, motorway, river or railway (c) fly expanding circles until a pinpoint is obtained (d) fly reverse headings and associated timings until the point of departure is regained (1) 22. What is the ISA temperature value at FL 330? (a) -50°C (b) -56°C (c) -66°C (d) -81°C (1) 23. Given: Pressure Altitude 29000 FT , OAT -55°C. Calculate the Density Altitude. (a) 26000 FT (b) 27500 FT (c) 31000 FT (d) 33500 FT (1) 24. An aircraft was over 'Q' at 1320 hours flying direct to 'R'. Given: Distance 'Q' to 'R' 3016 NM True airspeed 480 kt Mean wind component 'out' -90 kt Mean wind component 'back' +75 kt Safe endurance 10:00 HR The distance from 'Q' to the Point of Safe Return (PSR) 'Q' is: (a) 1310 NM (b) 1510 NM (c) 2290 NM (d) 2370 NM (2) 25. Given: Distance A to B is 360 NM. Wind component A – B is -15 kt, Wind component B -A is +15 kt, TAS is 180 kt. What is the distance from the equal-time-point to B? (a) 165 NM (b) 170 NM (c) 180 NM (d) 195 NM (2) 26. The distance from departure point to point of equal time is: (a) inversely proportional to groundspeed out and groundspeed back (b) inversely proportional to total distance (c) proportional to cosine of latitude (d) inversely proportional to groundspeed back (1) 27. When flying from A to B, a distance of 120nm, you are 3nm left of track after 30nm. What is the required alteration of heading to make good B ? (a) 8° left (b) 8° right (c) 6° right (d) 4° right (1) 28. An aircraft has a groundspeed of 510 kts and a True Air Speed of 440 kts. If the distance from A to B is 43 nm the time in minutes from A to B will be: (a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 6 (1) 29. If the true track from A to B is 090°, TAS is 460 kts, wind velocity is 360°/100kts, variation is 10°E and deviation is -2°; calculate the compass heading and groundspeed. (a) 069° and 448 kts (b) 068° and 460 kts (c) 078° and 450 kts (d) 070° and 453 kts (2) 30. Given: IAS 120 kts, FL80, COAT +20°. The TAS is: (a) 102 kts (b) 120 kts (c) 132 kts (d) 141 kts (1) 31. An aircraft is flying at FL 140 where the COAT is -5°C. It is flying at an indicated air speed of 260 kts and is experiencing a headwind of 34 knots. When 150 nm from the FIR boundary it is instructed to reduce speed in order to delay arrival at the boundary by 5 minutes. The required reduction in indicated air speed is: (a) 41 kts (b) 33 kts (c) 24 kts (d) 15 kts (2) 32. What is the ratio between the litre and the US gallon ? (a) 1 USG = 4.55 litres (b) 1 litre = 3.78 USG (c) 1 USG = 3.78 litres (d) 1 litre = 4.55 USG (1) Use the attached chart E(LO)1 to answer questions 33 to 42 33. An aircraft is overhead MAC (N55°25.8’W005°39.0’) at 1054 UTC. The aircraft is at FL270, COAT –40°C and the wind is 290°T/50 kts. In order for the aircraft to enter Shanwick Oceanic airspace at 56°N 010°W at 1114 UTC it should fly at a Mach No. of: (a) 0.72 (b) 0.76 (c) 0.80 (d) 0.84 (2) 34. If MAC (N55°25.8’W005°39.0’) 25 nm DME and GOW (N55°25.8’ W004°26.7’) 31 nm DME, the position of the aircraft is: (a) 55°51’N 005°10’W (b) 55°29’N 005°13’W (c) 55°50’N 005°50’W (d) 55°48’N 005°20’W (2) 35. BEL (N54°39.7’W006°13.8’) 085° RMI and 47 nm DME. The position of the aircraft is: (a) 54°30’N 007°30’W (b) 54°20’N 007°26’W (c) 54°35’N 007°33’W (d) 54°33’N 007°00’W (2) 36. An aircraft is overhead TRN (N55°18.8’W004°47.0’) at 2320 UTC; flying with a CAS of 250 kts, at FL180, COAT –15°C, wind 250°T/60kts. Variation is 7°W and the aircraft is routing via airway B2. What is the estimated time of arrival at MULLA ? (a) 2355 UTC (b) 2344 UTC (c) 2336 UTC (d) 2333 UTC (2) 37. If TY (N55°16.4’W008°14.9’) indicates 246° on the RMI and LAY (N55°41.0’W006°14.9’) shows 112° on the RMI the position of the aircraft is: (a) 55°43’N 006°32’W (b) 55°47’N 006°41’W (c) 55°48’N 006°53’W (d) 55°46’N 007°00’W (2) 38. When at FYNER (N56°03.0’W005°07.0’) the DME range from MAC (N55°25.8’W005°39.0’) is: (a) 25 nm (b) 16 nm (c) 41 nm (d) 29 nm (1) 39. TIR (N56°29.6’W006°52.6) and ISY (N55°25.8’W006°15.0’) both show DME range 60 nm. The position of the aircraft is: (a) 55°57’N 007°09’W (b) 56°14’N 007°47’W (c) 55°45’N 008°02’W (d) 55°31’N 007°12’W (2) 40. An aircraft is cleared to route direct from the Shanwick Oceanic CTA at 56N 010W to BEL (N54°39.7’W006°13.8’). If the TAS is 450 kts and the wind is given as Northerly at 70 kts the mean magnetic track to fly will be: (a) 130° (b) 122° (c) 115° (d) 107° (1) 41. If MAC (N55°25.8’W005°39.0’) indicates 124° on the RMI and ISY (N55°41.0’W006°15.0) indicates 80 nm on the DME the position of the aircraft is: (a) 55°52’N 007°11’W (b) 56°15’N 008°25’W (c) 55°58’N 007°09’W (d) 56°19’N 008°20’W (2) 42. An aircraft is routing direct from TRN (N55°18.8’W004°47.0’) to GOW (N55°52.2’W004°26.7’). the Easterly wind is giving seven degrees of drift, variation is 7°W and deviation is –3°. The magnetic heading to fly is: (a) 020° (b) 025° (c) 029° (d) 032° (1) 43. In the B737-400 Flight Management System the CDUs are used during preflight to: (a) manually initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information (b) automatically initialise the IRSs and FMC with dispatch information (c) manually initialise the Flight Director System and FMC with dispatch information (d) manually initialise the IRSs, FMC and Autothrottle with dispatch information (1) 44. What does the INS need for wind calculations ? (a) TAS (b) EAS (c) Mach Number (d) CAS (1) 45. What can be used to enter positions on all INS systems ? (a) Waypoint names (b) geographical co-ordinates (c) hexidecimals (d) ranges and bearings (1) 46. What do you call a system of gyros and accelerometers which is fixed to the aircraft ? (a) Laser (b) Strapdown (c) Fixed (d) Gyro-stabilised platform (1) 47. Alignment of INS and IRS equipment can take place in which of the following modes ? (a) ALIGN and ATT (b) NAV and ALIGN (c) ALIGN only (d) NAV and ATT (1) 48. A pilot turns off the power to his IRS whilst in flight. If he switches the power back on after just a few seconds the effect will be: (a) the IRS can be used providing the position is checked (b) there will be no effect and the IRS can continue to be used (c) the IRS cannot be used and should be shut down (d) the IRS cannot be used to give attitude information but can be used for navigation (1) 49. On an IRS the modes available on the MCP are: (a) OFF – STBY – ALIGN – NAV (b) OFF – STBY – ALIGN – ATT (c) OFF – ALIGN – NAV – ATT (d) OFF – ALIGN – NAV – STBY (1) 50. An IRS is programmed with waypoint 1: N60°00’ W030°00’, waypoint 2: N60°00’ W020°00’, waypoint 3: N60°00’ W010°00’. As the aircraft passes waypoint 2 its track will: (a) decrease by 9° (b) not change (c) increase by 9° (d) increase by 4.5° (2) 51. What is the axis of gyro drift ? (a) vertical and horizontal (b) vertical (c) horizontal (d) longitudinal (1) 52. Which of the following statements is correct concerning Ring Laser Gyros? (a) they do not suffer from ‘lock-in’ and are unaffected by the Earth’s gravitational force (b) they are not necessarily fixed to true north but take a long time to erect (c) they are not necessarily fixed to true north and are quick to erect (d) their alignment will be either with true north or the local vertical (1)