Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology 12th Edition by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+

Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora | Complete Guide A+ Test Bank Principles of Anatomy and Physiology, 12th Edition, by Bryan Derrickson, Gerald Tortora Testbank Chapter 1. An Introduction to the Human Body Multiple Choice 1. This is the study of the functions of body structures. a. Anatomy b. Physiology c. Dissection d. Histology e. Immunology Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.1 2. This is defined as a group of cells with similar structure and function. a. Tissue b. Organ c. Molecules d. Compounds e. Organism Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.2 3. Using your fingers to find your pulse on your wrist is an example of a. Auscultation b. Palpation c. Responsiveness d. Gross anatomy e. Physiologist Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.2 4. Percussion techniques can be used to determine a. Heart beats b. Pulse rate c. Amplify sounds d. Fluid in the lungs e. Enlarged organs Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.2 5. This is the sum of all cellular processes that occur in the body. a. Metabolism b. Anabolism c. Catabolism d. Auscultation e. Palpation Ans: A Difficulty: hard Feedback: 1.3 6. List the basic processes of life. Ans: The basic processes of life include metabolism, responsiveness, movement, growth, differentiation and reproduction. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.3 7. This is the regulation of body conditions within normal limits. a. Palpation b. Percussion c. Homeostasis d. Autopsy e. Histology Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.4 8. The systems that provide homeostasis are: a. Cardiovascular and Integumentary b. Nervous system and Endocrine c. Cardiovascular and respiratory systems d. Respiratory and muscular systems e. Urinary and integumentary systems Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 1.4 9. This body fluid directly affects the proper functioning of cells. a. Lymph b. Blood c. Interstitial fluid d. Aqueous humor e. Vitreous body Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 10. Name the differences between a positive and a negative feedback system. Ans: A positive feedback system will strengthen or reinforce a change in one of the body’s controlled conditions while a negative feedback system will reverse a change in a controlled condition. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 11. This is the structure of a feedback system that receives output from the control center. a. Receptor b. Body fluids c. Brain d. Effector e. Afferent Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 12. This is the structure of a feedback system that provides input to the control center. a. Receptor b. Muscle c. Brain d. Effector e. Efferent Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 13. A condition NOT regulated by a negative feedback loop would be: a. Childbirth b. Body temperature c. Blood pressure d. Heart rate e. Blood sugar Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 14. This is a change in body function that can be measured objectively. a. Symptom b. Disorder c. Disturbance d. Disease e. Sign Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 Essay 15. Describe the anatomical position. Ans: In the anatomical position the subject stands erect facing the observer with the head level and the eyes facing forward. The feet are flat on the floor and directed forward and the arms are at the sides with the palms turned forward. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 Multiple Choice 16. In which cavity is the brain located? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: A Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 17. In which cavity are the lungs located? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: E Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 18. In which cavity is the stomach located? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: C Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 19. This cavity is inferior to the abdominopelvic cavity. a. Vertebral canal b. Cranial cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pelvic cavity Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 20. Which cavity would include the heart? a. Cranial cavity b. Vertebral cavity c. Abdominal cavity d. Pericardial cavity e. Pleural cavity Ans: D Difficulty: Easy Feedback: 1.5 21. The function of the secretions of the serous membrane is to: a. Separate the thoracic and abdominal cavities b. Protect the central nervous system c. Prevent infection d. Reduce friction between organs e. Carry nervous impulses Ans: D Difficulty: Medium Feedback: 1.5 22. This plane divides the body into right and left halves. a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Oblique e. Coronal Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 23. This plane divides the body into anterior and posterior halves. a. Frontal b. Sagittal c. Transverse d. Oblique e. Midsagittal Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 24. A transverse plane will cut a body or organ into a. Anterior and posterior b. Left and right c. Superior and inferior d. At an angle e. Unequal left and right sides Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 25. This directional term means farthest from the midline. a. Medial b. Anterior c. Proximal d. Deep e. Lateral Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 26. This directional term means farther from the attachment of a limb to the trunk or farther from the origination of a structure. a. Deep b. Contralateral c. Lateral d. Cephalic e. Distal Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 27. This directional term is the opposite of deep. a. Superficial b. Superior c. Inferior d. Distal e. Proximal Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.6 28. Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct. The heart is _____ to the liver. a. Inferior b. Anterior c. Contralateral d. Superior e. Superficial Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 29. Choose the directional term that would make the sentence correct: The sternum is ____ to the heart. a. Posterior b. Anterior c. Inferior d. Superior e. Lateral Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 30. Which of the following organs is not found in the abdominal cavity? a. Stomach b. Spleen c. Liver d. Gallbladder e. Diaphragm Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 31. This covers the viscera within the thoracic and abdominal cavities and lines the walls of the thorax and abdomen. a. Pericardium b. Pleura c. Mediastinum d. Diaphragm e. Serous membrane Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 32. Where on the diagram is the femoral area? a. D b. E c. F d. J e. K Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 33. Where on the diagram is the sacral area? a. C b. D c. E d. I e. J Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 34. Where on the diagram is the cervical area? a. C b. E c. J d. K e. A Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 35. Where on the diagram is the brachial area? a. C b. E c. I d. K e. D Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 36. Where on the diagram is the popliteal area? a. H b. I c. J d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 37. The liver is ______ to the sternum. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Proximal d. Distal e. Superior Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 38. The stomach is ____ to the bladder. a. Lateral b. Medial c. Distal d. Inferior e. Superior Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 39. The humerus is _____ to the scapula. a. Proximal b. Distal c. Medial d. Superior e. Anterior Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 40. Which plane is parasagittal? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 41. Which plane is frontal? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 42. Which plane is transverse? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 43. Which plane is oblique? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 Essay 44. Name the cavities of the trunk and the serous membranes that line them. Ans: The four cavities are the pericardial, pleural, abdominal and pelvic. The pericardial membrane is lined by the pericardium. The pleura lines the pleural cavity. The abdominal and pelvic cavities are lined by the peritoneum. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.5 45. List the eleven systems of the human body. Ans: The eleven system of the human body include the integumentary, skeletal, muscular, nervous, digestive, urinary, respiratory, immune and lymphatic, cardiovascular, endocrine, and reproductive systems. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.2 46. Name the structural levels of the body and describe each level. Ans: The chemical level consists of atoms and molecules which are formed from the atoms. The cell level consists of cells which are the smallests form of life. The tissue level consists of groups of cells that work to provide a single function. The organ level consists of organs, constructed of different types of tissue, that can provide several different specific functions. The systems consist of one to many organs that are interlinked in general functions. The organism is made up of all of the systems which work to provide homeostasis. Difficulty: Hard Feedback: 1.2 47. List and briefly describe the six basic life processes. Ans: The six basic life processes include metabolism, which is the sum of all chemical processes in the body. Responsiveness is the body’s ability to detect and respond to internal and external stimuli. Movement includes motion of an individual cell to the entire body. Growth means an increase in body size or an increase in the number of cells. Differentiation is the process from taking a cell from unspecialized to specialized. Reproduction refers to formation of new cells for growth and repair or production of a new individual. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 1.3 48. Describe a feedback system and list the components. Ans: A feedback loop is a cycle of events in which the status of the body condition is monitored, evaluated and changed to maintain homeostasis. A feedback system will include a receptor that detects the stimuli, a control central that receives the input from the receptor and generates an output and an effector that that produces a response. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 1.4 Testbank Chapter 2. The Chemical Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What are the major elements found in the body? a. Nitrogen, oxygen, calcium, sodium b. Hydrogen, carbon, phosphorus, calcium c. Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen d. Oxygen, nitrogen, potassium, calcium e. Potassium, phosphorus, sodium, hydrogen Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 2. The subatomic particles that make up atoms include: a. Neutrons, quarks, muons b. Protons, neutrons, electrons c. Muons, positons, neutrons d. Electrons, quarks, protons e. Positons, protons, neutrons Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 3. Which of the following particles has a neutral charge? a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. All of the above Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 4. What region of an atom contains the protons and neutrons? a. Cloud b. Nucleus c. Element d. Ring e. Shell Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 5. This is the number of protons or electrons. a. Mass number b. Atomic number c. Isotope d. Valence shell e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 6. As an atoms nucleus decays, it will emit radiation. This is seen in a. Compounds b. Cations c. Anions d. Isotopes e. Molecules Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 7. This refers to the atomic weight of all naturally occurring isotopes of an element. a. Mass number b. Atomic number c. Atomic mass d. Ionic mass e. Covalent mass Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 8. Describe a beneficial use of radiation?. Ans: Radiation can be used for imaging purposes, create tracers and treatment of cancers by destroying cancer cells. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 Essay 9. Briefly describe the octet rule. Ans: One atom is more likely to interact with another atom if doing so will leave both atoms with eight electrons in their valence shells. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 Multiple Choice 10. Which of the following particles plays a role in creating chemical bonds? a. Neutron b. Electron c. Proton d. All of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 11. This is a negatively charged atom. a. Superoxide b. Isotope c. Catalyst d. Ion e. Valence Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.2 12. Which of the below provide an electrical current?. a. Isotope b. Ionic molecule c. Compound d. Electrolyte e. Valence molecule Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.5 13. This type of bond requires a sharing of electrons. a. Covalent b. Ionic c. Hydrogen d. Atomic e. Electronic Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.2 14. This is the type of bond between the atoms forming water a. Nonpolar covalent b. Polar covalent c. Hydrogen d. Ionic e. Atomic Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 Essay 15. Describe a hydrogen bond. Ans: Hydrogen bonds form between the slightly positively charged hydrogen atom and a slightly negatively charged atom, mostly oxygen or nitrogen. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 Multiple Choice 16. Which of the following bonds provides the three dimensional structure of large molecules like proteins and DNA? a. Nonpolar covalent b. Polar covalent c. Hydrogen d. Ionic e. Atomic Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 17. This occurs when new bonds form or old bonds break between atoms. a. Ions b. Electrolytes c. Isotopes d. Chemical reaction e. Compounds Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.2 18. This is defined as the capacity to do work. a. Metabolism b. Electrolytes c. Chemical reaction d. Concentration e. Energy Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 Essay 19. Describe the law of conservation of energy. Ans: Energy cannot be created or destroyed but it may be converted from one form to another form. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 Multiple Choice 20. This type of reaction will absorb more energy that it releases. a. Exergonic b. Endergonic c. Potential d. Kinetic e. Activation Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.3 21. An enzyme acts to a. Raise the activation energy needed b. Lower the activation energy needed c. Convert the activation energy into potential d. Convert the activation energy into kinetic e. Break a chemical reaction Ans: b Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 Essay 22. Describe three factors that increase the rate of chemical reactions. Ans: Three factors that promote reaction rates are the presence of enzymes (catalysts), increased concentration of reactants and increased temperature. Difficulty: Hard Feedback: 2.3 Multiple Choice 23. This type of reaction will combine reactants to produce larger products. a. Synthesis b. Decomposition c. Potential d. Exchange e. Activated Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.3 24. This type of reaction will break larger reactants to produce smaller products. a. Synthesis b. Decomposition c. Potential d. Exchange e. Activated Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.7 25. This is the most abundant and most important inorganic compound in the body. a. Water b. Oxygen gas c. Carbon dioxide d. Glucose e. DNA Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.4 26. A solute that dissolves in water is. a. Hydrophobic b. Hydrostatic c. Hydroamoure d. Hydrophillic e. Hydrozone Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.4 27. In a typical body solution, the solvent is. a. Glucose b. Lipids c. Carbon dioxide d. Water e. Electrolyte Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.4 Essay 28. Describe the functions of water in the body. Ans: Water is a solvent that allows transportation of solutes. Water acts in hydrolysis reactions to split reactants. Water can transport heat and, through sweating, releasing heat from the body. Water is used as a lubricant, particularly in serous fluids. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.4 Multiple Choice 29. A solution with a pH value smaller than 7 would be a(n) a. Base b. Salt c. Acid d. alkaline e. concentrate Ans: c Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.4 30. A substance that adds or removes Hydrogen ions from a solution is a(n) a. Base b. Salt c. Acid d. alkaline e. buffer Ans: e Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2. 10 31. Which of the following is considered a proton donor? a. Acid b. Base c. Salt d. Organic compound e. Colloid Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.4 32. These are specific arrangements of atoms that confer characteristic chemical properties upon organic molecules. a. Acids b. Bases c. Carbons d. Functional groups e. Isomers Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 33. Glucose and fructose both have the chemical formula C6H12O6 so they are considered a. Isotopes b. Isometrics c. Isolates d. Isomers e. Isotonics Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 34. Which of the following is a monosaccaride that is important in producing energy. a. Glucose b. Sucrose c. Lactose d. Ribose e. Deoxyribose Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 35. The major energy storage polysaccharide in humans is a. Cellulose b. Ribose c. Lipids d. Fats e. Glycogen Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.5 36. This type of triglyceride contains more than one double bond in the fatty acid carbon atoms. a. Saturated b. Monounsaturated c. Polyunsaturated d. Acylglycerols e. Lipoprotein Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 37. This type of lipid is the body’s long term energy storage molecule. a. Steroid b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride e. Lipoprotein Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 38. This type of lipid is used by the body to create hormones. a. Cellulose b. Phospholipid c. Cholesterol d. Triglyceride e. Lipoprotein Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 39. Which of the following is NOT true about phospholipids? a. They contain an glycerol backbone b. The head group is polar c. The molecule is an important part of cell membranes d. The tail groups are nonpolar e. They are a major energy storage lipid Ans: E Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.5 40. Prostaglandins and leukotrienes are considered: a. Amphipathic b. Both Lipids and Eicosanoids c. Eicosanoids d. All of the above Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Essay 41. Describe what structures comprise an amino acid. Ans: Amino acids contain a central carbon atom, an amino group, an acidic carboxyl group and a side chain. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 42. List the six major functions of proteins. Ans: Proteins can be used for structure, regulation, contraction, immunology, transport and as a catalyst. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Multiple Choice 43. The primary structure of a protein contains a. Alpha helix b. Beta-pleated sheets c. Substrates d. Amino acids e. All of the above Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Essay 44. List the three major properties of enzymes. Ans: Enzymes are highly specific, efficient and subject to a variety of cellular controls. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 45. Describe what happens to a protein’s structure and function when it is denatured. Ans: The protein will become unraveled and lose its unique shape. Loss of that shape will destroy the proteins’s function. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.5 Multiple Choice 46. Which of the following is a purine? a. Cytosine b. Guanine c. Thymine d. Ribose e. Phosphate Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 47. Which is the function of RNA? a. Produce electrical impulses b. storage of energy c. transfer information for protein synthesis d. store information for protein synthesis e. transport of fluids Ans: c Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 48. Which is the function of DNA? a. Produce chemical signals b. storage of energy c. transfer information for protein synthesis d. store information for protein synthesis e. transport of electrolytes Ans: d Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 49. Which is the function of ATP? a. Produce electrical impulses b. Transfers energy for cell functions c. transfer information for protein synthesis d. store information for protein synthesis e. transport of fluids Ans: b Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 50. What monomer is used to build RNA and DNA? a. fatty acid b. amino acid c. Glucose d. glycerol e. nucleotide Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 51. In the diagram which particles are negatively charged? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 52. In the diagram, which particles are positively charged? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2. 53. In the diagram, which particles have no charge? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 2.1 54. Give a brief description of what this diagram represents? Ans: This diagram represents the octet rule in chemical bonding. The octet rule states that two atoms will tend to bond if doing so means that they will both be left with eight electrons in their valence shells. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.2 55. What is this molecule, where can it be found in a eukaryotic cell and what are the special properties of this molecule? Ans: This is a phospholipid found in the plasma membranes of eukaryotic cells. It has a polar hydrophillic head group and a nonpolar hydrophobic tail group making it amphipathic. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 56. Describe what is happening at places 1,2 and 3 in the following figure. Ans: This figure represents how an enzyme works. At number one, the enzyme and substrate come together at the active site of the enzyme forming the enzymesubstrate complex. At number two, the enzyme catalyzes the reaction and transforms the substrate into products. At number three, the reaction is complete and the enzyme remains unchanged and free to catalyze the same reaction again on a new substrate. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 2.5 Multiple Choice 57. In the diagram, which one is a purine? a. A b. B c. E d. Both a and b e. All of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 58. In the diagram, which one is deoxyribose? a. B b. E c. F d. None of the above e. The entire structure is considered a deoxyribose molecule Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 59. In the diagram, where is the pyrimidine? a. A b. B c. E d. F e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Essay 60. What is the difference between atomic mass, mass number and atomic number? Ans: Atomic number is the number of protons found in the nucleus of an atom. Atomic mass is the total mass of all an atoms naturally occurring isotopes. Mass number is the total of a naturally occurring atoms protons and neutrons. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.1 Multiple Choice 61. In the diagram, what pH value represents an acidic solution? a. 12 b. 10 c. 8 d. 6 e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.4 62. In the diagram, what would happen to the concentration of C if the concentration of A increases? a. Increases b. Decreases c. No change Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 2.5 Testbank Chapter 3. The Cellular Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. What are the three main parts of a eukaryotic cell? a. Plasma membrane, organelles, cytoplasm b. Plasma membrane, organelles, nucleus c. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, organelles d. Plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus e. Plasma membrane, cytosol, organelles Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.1 Essay 2. Briefly describe the fluid mosaic model. Ans: The fluid mosaic model represents the molecular arrangement of the plasma membrane as an ever moving sea of fluid lipids that contain a mosaic of many different proteins. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 Multiple Choice 3. Plasma membranes consist of what three components? a. Phospholipids, glycoproteins, water b. Proteins, cholesterol, fatty acids c. Cholesterol, fatty acids, glycolipids d. Proteins, phospholipids, cholesterol e. Water, proteins, fatty acids Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 4. What are the nonpolar parts of a phospholipid? a. Head group b. Tail group c. Both are nonpolar d. Neither are nonpolar Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 5. This is the only polar portion of a cholesterol molecule and it forms hydrogen bonds with the polar heads of phospholipids. a. –OH group b. –CH3 group c. –CH4 group d. –OOH group e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: hard Feedback: 3.2 6. This type of membrane protein will extend throughout the entire membrane touching both the Intracellular fluid and the Extracellular fluid. a. Integral proteins b. Transmembrane proteins c. Integral proteins and Transmembrane proteins Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 Essay 7. Describe five different functions of embedded membrane proteins. Ans: Some proteins, like ion channels and carries, transport substances across the membrane. Proteins act as receptors for signaling chemicals to allow communication between cells. Other proteins are enzymes. There are also linker proteins that anchored cells to other cells. Lastly, some proteins act to help recognize cell identification. Difficulty: hard Feedback: Multiple Choice 8. This portion of the cell membrane enables cell membranes to produce chemical products. . a. Receptors b. Phospholipids c. Cholesterol d. Enzymes e. Ligand Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 9. Which of the following is a function of a membrane protein that binds with hormones and neurotransmitters? a. Transporters b. Receptors c. Enzymes d. Linkers e. Cell Identification markers Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 10. This type of membrane protein helps to anchor proteins in the plasma membrane of neighboring cells to one another. a. Transporters b. Receptors c. Ligand d. Ion channels e. Linkers Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.2 11. The characteristic of plasma membranes allowing only some substances to move through is known as… a. Selective permeability b. Concentration gradient c. Electrical gradient d. Solubility e. Transportation Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.2 12. Which of the following does NOT influence the rate of diffusion? a. Steepness of the concentration gradient b. Mass of the diffusing substance c. Charge of the diffusing substance d. Amount of ATP available e. Temperature Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 Essay 13. Briefly describe the two ways water molecules pass through a plasma membrane. Ans: Water can pass through a plasma membrane by simple diffusion or via osmosis when an integral membrane protein specific for water, called an aquaporin, acts as a water channel. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 Multiple Choice 12. This is a measure of a solutions ability to change the volume of cells by altering their water content. a. Hyperness b. Hyponess c. Tonicity d. Pressure e. Facilitation Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 14. This is the transport process by which gases move through a membrane. a. Osmosis b. Active transport c. Secondary active transport d. Simple diffusion e. Endocytosis Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 15. In this type of transport process a solute, like Glucose, binds to a specific transporter protein on one side of the membrane and is released on the other side after the transporter protein undergoes a change in shape. a. Osmosis b. Active transport c. Secondary active transport d. Facilitated diffusion e. Endocytosis Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 16. In this transport process, the energy from hydrolysis of ATP is used to drive substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients. a. Primary active transport b. Secondary active transport c. Facilitated diffusion d. Passive diffusion e. Osmosis Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 17. If the solute concentration is greater in the solution on the inside of the cell, compared to the solute concentration of the solution that is outside the cell, then what direction will water move? a. into the cell b. out of the cell c. no movement Ans: A Difficulty: hard Feedback: 3.2 18. In this transport process, the energy stored in Na+ or H+ concentration gradient is used to drive other substances across the membrane against their own concentration gradients. a. Primary active transport b. Secondary active transport c. Facilitated diffusion d. Passive diffusion e. Osmosis Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 19. This is a transport process by which cells secrete materials, within vesicles, into the extracellular fluid. a. Endocytosis b. Exocytosis c. Active transport d. Diffusion e. Osmosis Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 20. This is a transport process by which cells take up extracellular substances within vesicles.. a. Endocytosis b. Exocytosis c. Active transport d. Diffusion e. Osmosis Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 Essay 21. Briefly list the steps involved in receptor mediated endocytosis of ligands. Ans: In receptor mediated endocytosis of ligands the first step is binding, then vesicle formation, uncoating, fusion with endosome, recycling of receptors to the plasma membrane then degradation in the lysosome. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 Multiple Choice 22. This is an extension of the plasma membrane that will surround a particle outside the cell forming a vesicle. a. Phagocyte b. Exterior vesicle c. Interior vesicle d. Pseudopod e. Pinocytosis Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 23. The function of the cytosol is. a. ATP production b. Location of chemical reactions c. Production of polypeptides d. Digestion of decomposing proteins e. Protection of nuclear material Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.4 24. These perform special functions in cellular growth, maintenance and reproduction. a. organelles b. cytoskeletom c. cytoplasm d. cytosol e. nucleus Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.4 25. This organelle is comprised of microfilaments, intermediate filaments and microtubules. a. cytoskeleton b. cytoplasm c. cilia d. flagella e. ribosome Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.4 26. This is comprised of a pair of centrioles and pericentriolar materials. a. cytoskeleton b. cilia c. centrosome d. flagella e. peroxisomes Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.4 27. One type of human cell (spermatozoa) is capable of movement because it has this type of microtubule. a. cilia b. flagella c. cytoskeleton d. cytosol e. intermediate filament Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.4 28. This organelle contains ribosomes, which synthesis proteins a. rough endoplasmic reticulum b. cytosol c. nucleus d. centriole e. mitochondria Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 29. This is an organelle that modifies proteins produced elsewhere. a. endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi body c. peroxisomes d. nucleus e. proteasome Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 Essay 30. Briefly state the functions of the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Ans: The rough endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes glycoproteins and phospholipids that are transferred into cellular organelles, inserted into the plasma membrane or secreted during exocytosis. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes fatty acids and steroids, detoxifies harmful substances, removes phosphate groups from glucose-6- phosphate and stores and releases calcium ions that trigger contractions in muscle fibers. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 3.4 Multiple Choice 31. These are small flattened curved membranous sacs with bulging edges. a. secretory vessels b. membrane vessels c. cisternae d. cis face e. trans face Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 Essay 32. Briefly describe how proteins go through the Golgi body. Ans: Proteins are surrounded by a transport vesicle at the endoplasmic reticulum membrane. The vesicle goes into the cis face of the Golgi body, the proteins move through the cisternae, from cis face through to trans face. Some of the proteins will leave the last trans face in secretory vessels, membrane vessels or transport vessels and go onto other organelles in the cell. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 3.4 Multiple Choice 33. Which organelle oxidizes organic molecules? a. peroxisomes b. mitochondria c. proteasome d. ribosomes e. lysosomes Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 34. Which organelle recycles worn out organelles? a. peroxisomes b. mitochondria c. proteasome d. ribosomes e. lysosomes Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 35. Proteasomes a. Perform extracellular digestion b. Perform autophagy c. Perform autolysis d. Degrade faulty cellular proteins e. Degrade ATP Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.4 36. Mitochondria a. move the cell b. generate ATP c. produce proteins d. oxidize organells e. synthesize glycolipids Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 37. Which of the following protects the contents of the nucleus? a. Nucleic acids b. nuclear membrane c. nuclear centrosome d. cilia e. golgi apparatus Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.5 38. What is the major function of a histone protein? a. For helix shape b. Adds a charge to DNA c. Help organize coiling of DNA d. Degrade proteins e. Enzymatic effect Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.5 39. This is a long molecule of DNA that contains genes-there are 46 in each body cell. a. chromatin b. chromatid c. chromosome d. centromere e. centrosome Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.5 40. This is the set of rules that, relating the base triplet sequence of DNA to the corresponding codons of RNA, specifies a sequence of amino acids. a. gene expression b. genomics c. anticodons d. genetic code e. protein synthesis Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.6 Essay 41. Briefly explain the difference between transcription and translation. Ans: Transcription is making RNA from DNA and it occurs in the nucleus while translation is making a protein from the information in RNA and happens in the cytosol of the cell. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.6 Multiple Choice 42. This binds to an amino acid and holds it in place on a ribosome until it is incorporated into a protein during translation. a. mRNA b. rRNA c. tRNA d. DNA e. cDNA Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.6 43. This portion of a DNA segment does not code for a protein. a. RNA b. Intron c. Exon d. Polyribosome e. Ribosome Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.6 Essay 44. Briefly describe alternative splicing. Ans: Alternative splicing of mRNA is a process in which the pre-mRNA transcribed from a gene is spliced in different ways to produce several different mRNAs. The different mRNAs are used to make different proteins. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.6 Multiple Choice 45. This process is division of the cytoplasm. a. mitosis b. meiosis c. cytokinesis d. cytosol e. centrioles Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.7 Essay 46. Define homologous. Ans: homologous means containing similar information arranged in the same order as in homologous chromosomes. Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.7 Multiple Choice 47. During which phase do organelles duplicate and centrosome replication begin? a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.7 48. Normally how long does the G2 phase last? a. 8 hours b. 4-6 hours c. 2 hours d. 24 hours e. 1 day Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.7 49. During this phase the chromatin fibers condense and shorten into chromosomes that are visible under the microscope. a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.7 50. The function of mitosis is a. production of gametes b. create more cilia c. form flagella d. production of proteins e. production of new cells Ans. E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.7 51. During this phase a cleavage furrow forms. a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase e. Telophase Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.7 52. In the diagram, which organelle is responsible for autophagy and autolysis? a. C b. B c. F d. J e. K Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 53. In the diagram, which organelle is used to modify, sort and transport proteins? a. D b. I c. J d. K e. G Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 54. In the diagram, which organelle aids movement of the cell? a. A b. G c. H d. D e. I Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 55. In the diagram, this structure directs cellular activities. a. D b. F c. G d. A e. H Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 56. In the diagram, what is used as a medium for chemical reactions? a. D b. F c. G d. H e. K Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 57. In the diagram this organelle contains the enzyme oxidase which oxidizes organic substances. a. C b. E c. I d. J e. K Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.4 58. Which of the following represents a carrier protein? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.2 59. Which of the following represents a receptor? a. B b. C c. D d. E e. F Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.2 60. Which of the following represents a linker? a. B b. C c. D d. E e. F Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.2 61. In the diagram, which one represents facilitated diffusion? a. A b. B c. C d. Both a and c e. Both b and c Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.3 62. In the diagram, which one represents a hypertonic solution? a. A b. B c. C d. Both b and c e. All of the above Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.3 63. What does this figure represent? a. Fluid mosaic model of the plasma membrane b. Cyotkinesis c. Mitosis d. Protein synthesis e. Organelle digestion Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.6 64. Where would you see this occur? a. Nucleus b. Cytoplasm c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.6 Essay 65. Describe briefly what is occurring at each step in the figure. Ans: This figure represents protein synthesis. Step one the initiator tRNA attaches to a start codon. In step two the large and small ribosomal subunits join to form a functional ribosome and initiator tRNA fits into P site. In step three the anticodon of an incoming tRNA pairs with the next mRNA codon at A site. Step four the amino acid on the tRNA at P site forma a peptide bond with the amino acid at A site. Step five the tRNA at the P site leaves the ribosome and the ribosome shifts down by one codon. The tRNA previously at the A site is now at the P site. Step six is when protein synthesis stops when the ribosome reaches one of three stop codons on the mRNA strand. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 3.6 Multiple Choice 66. In the diagram, which one represents anaphase? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.7 67. In the diagram, which phase represents the kinetochore microtubules aligning the centromeres in the center of the cell? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.7 68. In the diagram, which phase has the formation of the centrosome? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 3.7 Essay 61. Compare and contrast primary and secondary active transport. Ans: Both are mediated, energy-requiring processes moving substances against their concentration gradients. Energy obtained from hydrolysis of ATP drives primary active transport, while energy stored in an ionic concentration gradient drives secondary active transport. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.3 62. Compare mitosis to meiosis. Ans: Mitosis is the division of nuclear contents of the cell. Mitosis is preceded by replication of DNA. During mitosis the two copies of DNA are separated into two different cells. Those two cells are identical to the original cell. Mitosis occurs in somatic cells and is necessary for growth and repair. Meiosis is the type of cell division that produces the gametes, the ova and sperm. Just as in mitosis, replication of DNA occurs before meiosis so that each chromosome is doubled. However, during meiosis, there are several differences from mitosis. During prophase I of meiosis, the homologous chromosome synapse and may exchange portions in a process called crossing-over. By the end of meiosis I, the homologs have been separated into different cells. These new cells are called haploid because they only contain one of the two homologs. Immediately after meiosis I, another round of division occurs and separates the sister chromatids in each cell. At the end of meiosis II, there are four cells. Each of those cells contains just 1 copy of each chromosome. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 3.7 Testbank Chapter 4. The Tissue Level of Organization Multiple Choice 1. Which of the following is not one of the main tissue types found in the human body? a. epithelial b. connective c. myocardial d. muscle e. nervous Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.1 2. This type of cell junction anchors adjacent cells and resists their separation during contractile activities. a. tight and hemidesmosome b. gap and tight c. adherens and desmosome d. desmosome and gap e. hemidesmosome and tight Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.2 3. This is a thin extracellular layer, that commonly consists of basal lamina and reticular lamina, that is found in epithelial tissues. a. basement membrane b. epithelial cells c. connective tissue d. vascular tissue e. gap junctions Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 4. Epithelial tissue a. Is used as a covering b. Is used as a lining c. Is used in glands d. Has a free surface e. All of the above Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 Essay 5. Name and briefly describe the cell shapes and arrangements of cell layers found in epithelial tissues. Ans: In epithelial tissues the layer arrangements can be simple, which means a single layer of cells, stratified which is two or more layers of cells and pseudostratified which is one layer of cells but looks like more than one layer due to the arrangement of the nuclei in each cell. The four cell shapes in clued squamous is are thin and flat, cuboidal which are similar in width in height, columnar are taller than they are wide and transitional which can change shape from cuboidal to squamous and back again. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 Multiple Choice 6. This tissue is found lining the heart, blood vessels and lymphatic vessels. a. Simple squamous epithelial b. Simple cuboidal epithelial c. Stratified squamous epithelial d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial e. Simple columnar epithelial Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 7. This tissue forms the most superficial layer of the skin. a. Simple squamous epithelial b. Simple cuboidal epithelial c. Stratified squamous epithelial d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial e. Simple columnar epithelial Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 8. This tissue forms glands. a. Simple squamous epithelial b. Areolar connective tissue c. Stratified squamous epithelial d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial e. Transitional epithelial Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 9. This tissue lines the respiratory tract and the fallopian tubes. a. Simple cuboidal epithelial b. Simple columnar epithelial c. Stratified columnar epithelial d. Stratified cuboidal epithelial e. Transitional epithelial Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 10. Where is it most likely to find transitional epithelial cells? a. Lining esophagus b. Outer layer of skin c. Urinary bladder d. Heart e. Covering skull bones Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 11. These are categorized by whether the ducts are branched or unbranched. a. Unicellular glands b. Multicellular glands c. Endocrine glands d. Exocrine glands e. All of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 12. This type of multicellular gland branching has a rounded secretory part attached to a single unbranched duct and is found mainly in sebaceous glands. a. Simple coiled tubular b. Compound tubular c. Compound tuboloacinar d. Simple branched acinar e. Simple branched tubular Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 13. Simple tubular multicellular branching has a. The tubular secretory portion straight and attaches to a single unbranched duct. b. The tubular secretory part coiled and attaches to a single unbranched duct c. The secretory part is rounded and attaches to a single unbranched duct d. Rounded secretory part is branched and attaches to a single unbranched duct. e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 14. How are exocrine glands classified? a. Based on shape b. Based on size c. Based on how their secretion is released d. Based on how they synthesize their secretion e. All of the above Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 15. This type of exocrine gland accumulates their product in their cytosol. a. Apocrine b. Exocrine c. Holocrine d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 16. In connective tissue, the matrix consists of a. Protein based enzymes and organelles b. Plasma membranes and ground substance c. Blood cells and protein fibers d. Calcified crystals of minerals and enzymes e. Protein fibers and ground substance Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 17. Connective tissues do NOT include a. Bone b. Blood cells c. Cartilage d. tendons e. Liver cells Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 18. This component of connective tissue is found between the cells and fibers and is used for support and as a medium for chemical reactions. a. Matrix b. Formed elements c. Ground substance d. Basement membrane e. Plasma membrane Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 19. Common polysaccharides found in ground substance include a. Hyaluronic acid b. Melatonin c. Cholesterol d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.4 20. Which fibers are seen in embedded in the matrix of connective tissue? a. Elastic b. Reticular c. Collagen d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 21. Reticular fibers help form this, which is used as a supporting framework for many soft organs. a. Matrix b. Ground substance c. Basement membrane d. Stroma e. Visceral layer Ans: D Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.4 22. Which of the following is classified as loose connective tissue? a. Blood b. Bone tissue c. Areolar connective tissue d. Elastic tissue e. Hyaline connective tissue Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 23. Where is the most common location for adipose tissue? a. Subcutaneous layer deep to skin b. Lining bones c. Covering brain d. Inside ear canal e. Cartilage Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 24. Dense connective tissues main function is a. Storage of mineral b. Forms stroma of organs c. Reducing heat loss d. Strong attachment between structures e. Aids in elasticity Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 25. This type of connective tissue is used mainly for support within the skeletal system. a. Adipose b. Elastic c. Fibrocartilage d. Dense irregular e. Reticular Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 Essay 26. Name and briefly describe the two types of growth and repair seen in cartilage. Ans: Growth and repair of cartilage can be classified as interstitial or appositional. In interstitial growth the cartilage increases rapidly in size due to the division of existing chondrocytes and the continuous deposition of increasing amounts of matrix by the chondrocytes. In appositional growth, activity of the cells in the inner chondrogenic layer of the perichondrium leads to growth. Deeper layers divide and cells mature resulting in the matrix accumulating beneath the perichondrium on the outer surface of the cartilage causing it to grow in width. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.4 Multiple Choice 27. What is the basic unit of compact bone tissue? a. osteon b. stroma c. lamellae d. chromosome e. lacunae Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 28. Spongy bone lacks a. Lamellae b. Lacunae c. Osteocytes d. Osteons e. Blood Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 29. The matrix in blood tissue is a. Red blood cells b. White blood cells c. Plasma d. Platelets e. Albumin Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 30. What is NOT an epithelial membrane in the human body? a. Mucous membrane b. Serous membrane c. Cutaneous membrane d. Endocardium membrane Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.5 31. This type of membrane lines a body cavity that does NOT open directly to the outside. a. Cutaneous b. Serous c. Mucous d. Basement e. Connective Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.5 32. These are immature, undifferentiated cells that can divide to replace lost or damaged cells. a. Stem cells b. Parenchyma c. Fibrosis d. Granular tissue e. Adhesions Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.9 33. In the diagram, which one is a desmosome? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.2 34. In the diagram, which one represents a tight junction? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.2 35. In the diagram, where is the apical surface? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 36. In the diagram, where is the basal surface? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 37. In the diagram, what is composed of basal lamina and reticular lamina? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 38. In the diagram, which one represents simple acinar? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 39. In the diagram, which one represents compound tubular? a. C b. D c. E d. F e. G Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 40. In the diagram, which one represents compound tubuloacinar? a. D b. E c. F d. G e. H Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.3 41. Which of the following represents simple columnar epithelium? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 42. Which of the following represents stratified cuboidal epithelium? a. B b. C c. D d. E e. F Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 43. Which of the following represents pseudostratified columnar epithelium? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.3 44. In the figures, which one represents the most abundant connective tissue found in the human body? a. E b. F c. G d. H e. J Ans: G Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.4 45. In the figures, which one represents areolar tissue? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 46. In the figures, which one represents reticular connective tissue? a. B b. C c. E d. F e. H f. K Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 47. In the figures, which one represents fibrocartilage? a. E b. F c. G d. H e. J Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 48. In the figures which one represents dense regular connective tissue? a. C b. D c. E d. F e. G Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.4 49. In the figures, which one represents blood? a. K b. J c. H d. G e. F Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 50. In the figures, which one represents the hardest matrix found in connective tissue? a. K b. J c. G d. B e. D Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.4 51. In the figures which one represents tissue that is under involuntary control? a. A b. B c. C d. Both a and b e. Both b and c Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.6 52. In the figures, which one represents cardiac muscle? a. A b. B c. C d. All of the above e. None of the above Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.6 Essay 53. Briefly describe the four parts of an osteon. Ans: Each osteon includes lamellae, lacunae, canaliculi and a Haversian canal. The lamellae are concentric rings of matrix that consist of mineral salts and collagen fibers. Lacunae are small spaces between lamellae that contain mature bone cells called osteocytes. Projecting from the lacunae are canaliculi, which are networks of minute canals containing the processes of osteocytes. Canaliculi provide routes for nutrients to reach osteocytes and for wastes to leave them. A central Haversian canal contains blood vessels and nerves. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.4 54. Name and describe the types of cells found in connective tissue. Ans: Connective tissue can contain fibroblasts, which are large, flat cells with branching projections that secrete the fibers and ground substance of the matrix. Macrophages develop from monocytes and are irregular shaped with short branching projections and are capable of engulfing bacteria and cellular debris by phagocytosis. Plasma cells secrete antibodies that attack or neutralize foreign substances in the body. Mast cells produce histamine that dilates small blood vessels. Adipocytes store triglycerides. White blood cells migrate from blood to connective tissue in response to certain immune system conditions. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.4 Multiple Choice 55. Which of the below tissues is responsible for pumping blood? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.6 56. Which of the below tissues is small, spindle shaped and found in the walls of hollow organs? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle Ans: B Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.6 57. Which of the below tissues has more than one nucleus and is voluntary? a. skeletal muscle b. smooth muscle c. cardiac muscle d. transitional muscle e. areolar muscle Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 4.6 Essay 58. Compare and contrast the functional and structural characteristics of muscular tissue. Ans: Both cardiac and skeletal muscle tissues are striated and smooth muscle is not, hence its name. Skeletal muscle cells are have more than one nucleus, are large and run parallel to each other. Cardiac muscle cells usually have only one, sometimes two, nuclei and are branched. They also are connected to each other via gap junctions. Smooth muscle cells are small but form thick layers of hollow organs. Like cardiac muscle cells, some smooth muscle cells communicate via gap junctions. Skeletal muscle is voluntarily controlled while both cardiac and smooth muscle tissue are involuntary. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 4.6 Multiple Choice 59. Which cells are excitable and, therefore, able to carry electrical impulses? a. neuroglial and muscular b. muscular and connective c. neuroglial and nervous d. nervous and epithelial e. muscular and nervous Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 4.8 Testbank Chapter 5. The Integumentary System Multiple Choice 1. This is another name for the subcutaneous layer. a. Dermis b. Epidermis c. Corpuscle d. Basale e. Hypodermis Ans: E Difficulty: easy Feedback: 5.1 2. This layer is composed of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. a. Epidermis b. Dermis c. Hypodermis d. Subcutaneous e. Corpuscle Ans: A Difficulty: easy Feedback: 5.1 3. Keratin a. Is a protein b. Helps protect the bone from viruses c. Is a protein that is made of melanocytes d. Both a and c e. All of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 4. This pigment absorbs ultraviolet light. a. Keratin b. Melanin c. Melatonin d. Carotene e. Nigrosin Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 5. This epidermal cell has a role in immunity and disease resistance. a. Langerhans b. Keratinocytes c. Melanocyte d. Merkel cell e. Corpuscle Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 6. This layer of epidermis is composed of a single row of cuboidal or columnar keratinocytes. a. Stratum basale b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum lucidum e. Stratum corneum Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 7. This layer of the epidermis contains layers of flattened keratinocytes that are going through apoptosis. a. Stratum basale b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum lucidum e. Stratum corneum Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 8. The stratum lucidum a. Contains lamellar granules b. Lies just superficially to stratum basale c. Is the layer used in a skin graft d. Is present only in thick skin e. Consists of 25-30 layers of dead keratinocytes. Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 9. Constant exposure of skin to friction stimulates the formation of a callus which is the thickening of which layer? a. Stratum basale b. Stratum spinosum c. Stratum granulosum d. Stratum lucidum e. Stratum corneum Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 10. Keratinization a. Is the process of synthesizing pigment in the skin b. Is the process of cells accumulating keratin c. Is only seen in thin skin d. Is the process of synthesizing pigment and accumulating keratin e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 11. This layer is composed mainly of connective tissue with collagen and elastic fibers. a. Hypodermis b. Basement membrane c. Epidermis d. Dermis e. Hypodermis Ans: D Difficulty: easy Feedback: 5.1 Essay 12. Describe how fingerprints are formed and what they are used for. Ans: Epidermal ridges develop during the third or fourth fetal month as the epidermis conforms to the contours of the underlying dermal papillae of the papillary region. The ridges increase the surface area of the epidermis and thus increase the grip of the hand or foot by increasing friction. Because the ducts of sweat glands open on the tops of the epidermal ridges as sweat pores, the sweat and ridges form fingerprints upon touching a smooth object. The epidermal ridge pattern is genetically determined and is unique for each individual. Difficulty: hard Feedback: 5.1 Multiple Choice 13. Albinism a. Is the absence of melanin b. Is the absence of carotene c. Is the absence of both melanin and carotene d. Is the absence of keratin e. Is the absence of thick skin Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 14. Thick skin a. Is found in the palms, soles of the feet and fingertips b. Does not contain hair follicles c. Contains more sweat glands than thin skin d. Contain epidermal ridges e. All of the above Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 15. Which of the following plays an important role in thermoregulation? a. Merkel cell b. Sebaceous gland c. Sweat gland d. Nail e. Fingerprint Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 5.2 16. This skin structure act to prevent water loss as well as inhibiting bacterial growth on the surface of the skin. a. Thick skin b. nails c. Sweat glands d. Hair e. Oil glands Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 Essay 17. Describe how an arrector pili works. Ans: Arrector pili are a smooth muscle that extends from the superficial dermis of the skin to the side of the hair follicle. In its normal position, hair emerges at an angle to the surface of the skin. Under physiological or emotional stress, such as cold or fright, autonomic nerve endings stimulate the arrector pili muscle to contract, which pulls the hair shafts perpendicular to the skin surface. This action causes “goose bumps” because the skin around the shaft forms slight elevations. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 Multiple Choice 18. This is fine nonpigmented hair that covers the body of the fetus. a. Alopecia b. Vellus c. Lanugo d. Papilla e. Hair follicles Ans: C Difficulty: easy Feedback: 5.2 19. This type of gland is a branched acinar gland connected to a hair follicle. a. Sebaceous b. Sudoriferous c. Both sebaceous and sudoriferous d. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 20. This is a mixture of triglycerides, cholesterol, proteins and inorganic salts. a. Sweat b. Lanugo c. Vellus d. Sebum e. Mucous Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 21. This type of gland is a coiled tubular gland found almost throughout the entirety of the skin. a. Sebaceous b. Eccrine c. Appocrine d. Ceruminous e. None of the above Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 Essay 22. Briefly describe the functions of the skin. Ans: The functions of the skin include thermoregulation. The skin thermoregulates in two major ways. The skin does this by liberating sweat at its surface and by adjusting the flow of blood in the dermis. In response to low temperatures, production of sweat is decreased to conserve heat. The skin covers the body and provides protection by keratin, lipids, secretions like oil and sweat and immunological protection. The skin can detect and respond to cutaenous sensations. The skin acts in secretion and absorption. The skin also can synthesize vitamin D. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.4 23. Briefly describe the steps in epidermal wound healing. Ans: In response to an epidermal injury, basal cells of the epidermis surrounding the wound break contact with the basement membrane. The cells then enlarge and migrate across the wound. When epidermal cells encounter each other they stop migrating due to contact inhibition. Migration of the epidermal cells stops completely when each is finally in contact with other epidermal cells on all sides. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.5 24. Briefly describe the steps in deep wound healing. Ans: In deep wound healing, a blood clot forms during the inflammation response and loosely unites the wound edges. Then in the migratory phase the clot becomes a scab and epithelial cells migrate beneath the scab to bridge the wound. Fibroblasts migrate along fibrin threads and begin synthesizing scar tissue and damaged blood vessels begin to regrow. During the maturation phase, the scab sloughs off once the epidermis has been restored to normal thickness. Collagen fibers become more organized, fibroblasts decrease in number and blood vessels are restored to normal. Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.5 Multiple Choice 25. In this type of scarring, the scar tissue extends beyond the boundary of the injury into normal tissue. a. Hypertrophic b. Keloid c. Proliferative d. Inhibitory e. Granulatory Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.4 26. In the diagram, where is the sebaceous gland? a. C b. D c. E d. F e. H Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 27. In the diagram, where is the apocrine sweat gland? a. C b. D c. A d. F e. H Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 28. In the diagram, where are the ridges that serve as fingerprints? a. A b. B c. G d. H e. None of the above Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 29. In the diagram, where is the reticular region of the dermis? a. E b. F c. G d. H e. A Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 30. In the diagram, where is the arrector pili muscle? a. C b. D c. E d. F e. G Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 31. In the photo, which layer is the stratum spinosum? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 32. In the photo, which layer is only seen in thick skin? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 33. In the photo, which layer is the stratum basale? a. A b. B c. D d. E e. F Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.1 34. In the diagram, where is the cortex? a. B b. C c. D d. E e. F Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 35. In the diagram, where is the dermal root sheath? a. C b. D c. E d. F e. G Ans: D Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 36. In the diagram, where is the cuticle of the hair? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 37. In the figure, where is the eponychium? a. A b. B c. E d. F e. G Ans: B Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 38. In the figure, where is the hyponychium? a. B b. C c. E d. F e. G Ans: E Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 39. In the figure, where is the nail root? a. A b. C c. E d. F e. G Ans: A Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 40. In the figure, where is the nail matrix? a. A b. C c. E d. F e. G Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 41. In the figure, where is the lunula? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E Ans: C Difficulty: medium Feedback: 5.2 42. In the figure, what is happening at B? a. Blood clot is forming b. Collagen fibers are forming c. Damaged blood vessels are regrowing d. Epithelium are migrating across wound