Summary Paramedic Operations Final Exam: Answered (updated spring 23)

Question The EMS network begins: A. with citizen involvement. B. when an injury has occurred. C. by educating dispatchers. D. when paramedics are notified. Question 2 The main goal of any CQI program is to: A. promptly correct any problems once they are identified. B. identify and remove paramedics who are not competent. C. revamp protocols based on the current standards of care. D. assess for ongoing improvement before a problem arises. Question 3 Which of the following is NOT a typical function of the EMS medical director? A. Developing protocols in cooperation with other EMS experts B. Interfacing between EMS systems and other agencies C. Responding to an emergency scene with the paramedics D. Participating in the hiring process of new EMS personnel Question 4 A major distinction between a paramedic and an EMT is that the paramedic: A. is more likely to be sued for negligence. B. carries out advanced pharmacologic skills. C. is held to a higher professional standard. D. can function independently of a physician. Question 5 A paramedic is considered a health care professional, and as such should: A. meet societal expectations whether he or she is on or off duty. B. obtain more than the required amount of continuing education. C. demand respect from others who are in the EMS profession. D. maintain higher standards than other health care professionals. Question 6 A protocol is MOST accurately defined as a(n): A. verbal order given by the medical director. B. treatment plan for a specific illness or injury. C. agreement between the paramedic and physician. D. nationally accepted standard of care. Question 7All of the following are examples of injury prevention, EXCEPT: A. informing a patient of a loose rug at the top of the stairs. B. demonstrating the proper use of a bicycle helmet. C. teaching rescue breathing and CPR to a group of citizens. D. instructing a person on how to wear a seat belt properly. Question 8 As an advocate for your patient, you must: A. treat all patients the same, regardless of differences in lifestyle, culture, and personal values. B. act in the patient's best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs. C. allow your personal feelings to affect the quality of care that you provide to your patients. D. keep suspicions of abuse or neglect to yourself if the patient fears retribution from the abuser. Question 9 If a paramedic is self-motivated, he or she should NOT: A. require maximum supervision at work. B. be able to accept constructive feedback. C. possess an internal drive for excellence. D. continuously educate himself or herself. Question 10 Peer review can be a good learning experience if: A. those conducting the review have good guidelines to follow and the person being evaluated keeps an open mind. B. the person or persons conducting the review have at least 10 years of EMS experience. C. the EMS system's medical director and administrative staff take part in the process. D. the information gained from the review is shared with other personnel within the EMS system. Question 11 After asking a patient a question about how he is feeling today, you sense that he is having difficulty putting his feelings into words. You should: A. be patient and give the patient time to express his feelings. B. ask another question and revisit the previous question later. C. repeat the question, but ask it differently the second time. D. offer suggested responses to facilitate the patient's answer. Question 12 An elderly man states that he is sad and depressed because his wife recently died of cancer. Which of thefollowing statements from the paramedic demonstrates empathy? A. “I understand why you are sad, and I am sad for you. Is there anything I can do to make you feel better?” Incorrect B. “Your wife's death is very tragic, but perhaps going to the hospital will provide you with some relief.” C. “I'm sorry, sir. I don't know how I would feel in your situation, but I am sure it would be similar.” D. “I'm sorry to hear about your wife, but you should take comfort in the fact that she is in a better place.” Question At minimum, sending the 12-lead ECG of a patient with chest pain to the emergency department physician via telemetry would: A. allow the physician to choose the appropriate fibrinolytic. B. enable the paramedic to begin treatment in the field. C. decrease the likelihood of prehospital cardiac arrest. D. decrease the time from diagnosis to treatment. Question 14 Eye-to-eye contact with a patient reinforces: A. professional courtesy. B. trust and honesty. C. passive listening. D. sympathy. Question 15 A poorly written patient care report: A. is unavoidable during a mass-casualty incident and is generally acceptable. B. may raise questions by others as to the paramedic's quality of patient care. C. often indicates that the paramedic was too busy providing patient care. D. generally results in a lawsuit, even if the patient outcome was favorable. Question 16 All of the following are subjective findings, EXCEPT: A. a persistent dull headache. B. visible blood in the ear canal. C. acute and severe nausea. D. a feeling of impending doom. Question 17 HIPAA mandates that:A. a patient's personal information must be shared with the patient's immediate family members. B. patient information shall not be shared with entities or persons not involved in the care of the patient. C. patient information can only be shared with the receiving physician in the emergency department. D. a penalty will be imposed for any release of any portion of a patient's personal information to any entity. Question 18 The MOST effective way to maintain your own knowledge of standard medical terminology is to: A. memorize the standard terms used by your EMS system. B. read the patient care reports that your peers write. C. participate in a QA process that reviews patient care reports. D. review the anatomy and physiology chapter of a textbook. Question 19 The MOST significant problem associated with making up your own medical abbreviations and documenting them on the patient care report is: A. a potential lawsuit. B. insurance denial. C. an error in patient care. D. confusion at the hospital. Question 20 When documenting a statement made by the patient or others at the scene, you should: A. place the exact statement in quotation marks in the narrative. B. document the exact time that the statement was made. C. translate the statement into appropriate medical terminology. D. include the statement in an addendum to your run report. Question 21 Which of the following statements includes a pertinent negative? A. “The possible smell of ETOH was noted on the patient.” B. “The rapid head-to-toe exam revealed abrasions to the chest.” C. “The patient rates his pain as an 8 on a scale of 0 to 10.” D. “The patient complains of nausea but denies vomiting.” Question 22 According to the terminal drop hypothesis: A. late-stage adults retain high brain function until about 5 years before death. B. Alzheimer's disease commonly develops after the death of a loved one. C. most adults over 70 years of age are willing to give up their independence. D. mental function is presumed to decline in the 5 years preceding death. Question 23 As the smooth muscles of the lower airway weaken with age:A. beta-agonistic bronchodilators become an ineffective treatment for acute bronchospasm. B. the person is predisposed to aspiration of mucus or other secretions during normal breathing. C. strong inhalation can collapse the walls of the airway, resulting in inspiratory wheezing. D. the alveoli in the lungs expand widely during deep inhalation, causing them to rupture. Question 24 By definition, infancy begins at: A. 18 months of age. B. birth. C. 1 month of age. D. 12 months of age. Question 25 In late adults, the size of the airway __________ and the surface area of the alveoli ___________. A. decreases, decreases B. increases, decreases C. decreases, increases D. increases, increases Question 26 Older adults are prone to subdural hematomas because: A. excessive alcohol use, which is very common in older adults, causes the brain to atrophy prematurely. B. older adults experience an increase in intracranial blood flow as well as a predisposition to falls. C. age-related shrinkage of the brain stretches the bridging veins that return blood from the brain to the dura mater. D. age-related hypertension weakens the cerebral veins, which predisposes them to damage from even minor trauma. Question 27 Relative to younger adults, older adults generally have a harder time breathing because the: A. natural elasticity of the lungs decreases. B. rib cage becomes flexible due to hypocalcemia. C. phrenic nerves send fewer signals to the diaphragm. D. diaphragm ascends much higher into the thorax. Question 28 The circadian rhythm refers to a person's: A. sleep pattern. B. feeding habits.C. breathing pattern. D. bowel habits. Question 29 The _________ reflex happens when an infant is startled and opens his or her arms wide. A. palmar Incorrect B. vagal C. rooting D. moro Question 30 When assessing an older adult's pupils and ocular movements, you should recall that: A. visual impairment is four times more common than loss of hearing in older adults. B. it is not uncommon for lens deterioration to cause the pupils to be sluggish to react. C. older adults experience decreased sensitivity to glare and widened peripheral vision. D. the pupils are generally larger in older adults and are commonly asymmetric in size. Question 31 Which of the following psychosocial changes is common during adolescence? A. Code of ethics development based solely on parental values B. Openness in speaking about personal issues C. A decreased risk for depression or suicidal behavior D. Fixation on public image and fear of embarrassment Question 32 Which of the following statements regarding nervous system function in the older adult is correct? A. Although a loss of neurons occurs, the remaining neurons increase in function. B. Cerebral metabolism and oxygen consumption remain constant throughout life. C. By the age of 80 years, the size of the brain has decreased by 30% to 40%. D. Synapses in the frontal lobe of the brain are the only ones that do not deteriorate. Question 33 Which of the following statements regarding renal function in older adults is correct? A. Aging kidneys respond less efficiently to hemodynamic stress. B. Renal filtration begins to deteriorate at the age of 70 years. C. In older adults, renal changes are more structural than functional. D. A 20-year-old patient has already experienced a 10% loss of nephrons. Question 34 You would MOST likely see an increased end-tidal CO2 reading in an otherwise healthy older adult because: A. as respiratory muscle mass increases with age, the older adult experiences increasing difficulty with inspiration and expiration.B. residual volume increases with age, resulting in stagnant air remaining in the alveoli and hampering gas exchange. C. the vital capacity in late adulthood amounts to only 20% of the vital capacity noted in young adulthood. D. many older adults experience idiopathic atrophy of the diaphragm and are unable to breathe in adequate tidal volumes. Question 35 A bruit indicates _________ blood flow and is MOST significant in the _________ arteries. A. laminar, carotid B. turbulent, femoral C. turbulent, carotid D. laminar, brachial Question 36 A deformed steering wheel in conjunction with a deployed air bag indicates that the: A. driver was not wearing a seat belt. B. driver's legs struck the steering wheel. C. driver has intrathoracic hemorrhage. D. driver wore a lap belt only. Question 37 A patient who complains of double vision has: A. diplopia B. anisocoria. C. ptosis. D. hyperopia. Question 38 A patient who gives the emergency department physician completely different information than he or she gave to you in the field: A. may have an organic condition, such as a brain tumor. B. clearly trusts the physician more than you. C. should be questioned as to why the information was different. D. will cause the physician to question your competence. Question 39 A working hypothesis of the nature of a patient's problem is called the: A. chief complaint. B. field impression. C. differential diagnosis. D. history of present illness.Question 40 After determining that the scene is safe, the FIRST step in approaching a patient is to: A. ask the patient his or her name. B. introduce yourself to the patient. C. determine the chief complaint. D. ascertain the age of the patient. Question 41 After performing your primary assessment of a patient, your next action should be to: A. decide what care is needed at the scene versus en route to the hospital. B. transport the patient to the closest medical treatment facility. C. move the patient to the ambulance as expeditiously as possible. D. perform a secondary assessment to narrow your differential diagnosis. Question 42 An empathetic attitude: A. puts you in your patient's shoes. B. will put your patient at ease quickly. C. is often offensive to the patient. D. allows you to feel sorry for the patient. Question 43 Before asking a patient about any mental health issues, the paramedic should: A. perform a comprehensive head-to-toe assessment. B. move the patient to the ambulance, where it is more private. C. ask questions relating to his or her physical health. D. speak privately with a family member or trusted friend. Question 44 Bruising in the periumbilical area is indicative of: A. a leaking aortic aneurysm. B. ruptured ectopic pregnancy. C. a ruptured urinary bladder. D. intraperitoneal hemorrhage. Question 45 Cognitive function can be MOST accurately defined as: A. functional use of the extremities. B. the ability to use reasoning. C. one's state of awareness. D. general level of consciousness.Question 46 All of the following are adventitious breath sounds, EXCEPT: A. wheezes. B. vesicular sounds. C. rales. D. rhonchi. Question 47 At 3:00 a.m. you receive a call for a “man down.” While en route to the scene, you ask the dispatcher to provide additional information, but the dispatcher advises you the caller was abrupt on the phone and then hung up. You should: A. assume the caller was panicked because the patient is critically ill. B. stage in a safe area until contact with the caller can be reestablished. C. ask the dispatcher if law enforcement is en route to the scene. D. advise the dispatcher to send a second paramedic crew to the scene. Question 48 At its worst, kyphosis can become a source of: A. restrictive lung disease B. extremity paralysis. C. complete immobility. D. pathologic fractures. Question 49 For a responsive patient with a medical problem, you will MOST likely form your working diagnosis based on information gathered during the: A. general impression. B. history-taking process. C. primary assessment. D. detailed physical exam. Question 50 If a patient's trigeminal nerve is intact, he or she should be able to: A. maintain balance. B. frown. C. swallow without difficulty. D. clench his or her jaw. Question 51If your patient becomes seductive or makes sexual advances toward you, you should advise the patient that your relationship with him or her is strictly professional and then: A. continue providing care as usual. B. ask your partner to assume care of the patient. C. ensure that a witness is present at all times. D. threaten the patient with a sexual harassment lawsuit. Question 52 In contrast to dementia, delirium is: A. more common in the elderly population. B. characteristic of Alzheimer's disease. C. a gradual deterioration in cognitive function. D. an acute change in mental status. Question 53 In general, +3 pitting edema is characterized by indentation of the skin to a depth of: A. 0 in to ¼ in. B. greater than 1 in. C. ¼ in to ½ in. D. ½ in to 1 in. Question 54 Making your patient aware that you perceive something inconsistent with his or her behavior is called: A. interpretation. B. clarification. C. facilitation. D. confrontation Question 55 Objective patient information: A. is based on fact or observation. B. is observed by the patient. C. cannot be quantified. D. is perceived by the patient. Question 56 Percussion of the chest produces ____________ if the pleural space is full of blood. A. a high-pitched note B. a dull sound C. hyperresonance D. a hollow sound Question 57S1, the first heart sound, represents: A. closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves. B. the sound heard at the end of diastole. C. closure of the aortic and pulmonic valves. D. the sound heard at the end of systole. Question 58 The Babinski sign, grasping, and sucking are: A. examples of primitive reflexes. B. voluntary motor responses. C. abnormal findings in infants. D. signs of nervous system dysfunction. Question 59 The mnemonic “OPQRST” is a tool that: A. is used commonly to rule out conditions that are immediately life threatening. B. offers an easy-to-remember approach to analyzing a patient's chief complaint. C. is only effective when assessing a patient who is experiencing severe pain. D. allows the paramedic to reach a field diagnosis quickly and initiate treatment. Question 60 The presence of rales during auscultation of the chest indicates all of the following conditions, EXCEPT: A. pulmonary edema. B. heart failure. C. toxic inhalation. D. bronchospasm. Question 61 The vestibulocochlear nerve is responsible for the functions of: A. facial and eye movements. B. tongue and neck movements. C. hearing and balance perception. D. swallowing and gland secretion. Question 62 To appreciate the S1 heart sound: A. if possible, bring the heart closer to the chest wall by sitting the patient up and leaning them forward. It will also help to ask the patient to breathe normally and hold his or her breath on expiration. B. ask the patient to lay left laterally recumbent and take a deep breath and hold his or her breath on inhalation. C. the patient should be supine with his or her body tilted to the right, or lay right laterally recumbent D. the patient should be sitting upright and leaning slightly backward.Question 63 Visceral abdominal pain is: A. commonly encountered in patients with cholecystitis or pancreatitis. B. characterized by a localized area of abdominal tenderness or pain. C. highly suggestive of a ruptured hollow abdominal organ. D. often less localized on palpation and is poorly described by the patient. Question 64 What are Korotkoff sounds? A. The sounds heard when taking a blood pressure B. Abnormal sounds heard over the carotid arteries C. Sounds over an artery that indicate turbulent blood flow D. Sounds that indicate a significant heart murmur Question 65 When auscultating heart sounds, the point of maximal impulse where it would be best to place your stethoscope is at the: A. second intercostal space, over the base of the heart. B. fifth to sixth intercostal space and the left midclavicular line, over the apex of the heart. C. third or fourth intercostal space, in the midaxillary line. D. right and then left sternal border; at the second or third intercostal spaces respectfully. Question 66 A working diagnosis is MOST accurately defined as: A. a firm explanation for the patient's symptomatology. B. what you feel is the cause of your patient's problem. C. a reliable yet unofficial diagnosis of the patient. D. your interpretation of the patient's vital sign values. Question 67 After gathering information from the patient, scene, and any bystanders, you must next: A. determine which information is valid and which may be invalid. B. formulate a care plan based on the information. C. synthesize the information to form a thought process. D. determine the most likely cause of the patient's problem. Question 68 In EMS, the process of concept formation involves: A. gathering information about your patient.B. determining the validity of obtained data. C. knowing which treatment algorithm to use. D. interpreting a patient's signs and symptoms. Question 69 Knowledge of anatomy, physiology, and pathophysiology is MOST important during the ________________ stage of critical thinking. A. reflection in action B. concept formation C. application of principle D. data interpretation Question 70 Protocols, or standing orders, specify the paramedic's performance parameters, which: A. limit the skills that the paramedic can perform in his or her EMS system. B. allow the paramedic to function autonomously on every EMS call. C. outline the care that is provided after contacting online medical control. D. define what the paramedic can or cannot do without direct medical control. Question 71 Synthesizing information about a patient with multiple medical conditions involves: A. ruling out each condition as the cause of the patient's chief complaint. B. determining the patient's perception of his or her multiple conditions. C. assessing each condition's potential for having a life-threatening impact. D. determining the validity of each of the patient's medical problems. Question 72 Which of the following scenarios MOST accurately depicts reflection in action? A. Reassessing a patient's blood pressure after administering nitroglycerin B. Obtaining a room air pulse oximetry reading before applying oxygen C. Noting a patient's heart rate before you administer any medication D. Administering aspirin and then immediately applying a cardiac monitor Question 73 A 15-year-old woman presents with acute abdominal pain while at a party with her husband. You arrive at the scene, assess the patient, and advise her of the need for EMS treatment and transport. However, the patient, who is conscious and alert, refuses EMS treatment and transport and states that her husband will transport her in his car. You should: A. begin treatment using implied consent, because she is under 18 years of age. B. ensure that she has decision-making capacity and then obtain a signed refusal after advising her of the risks of refusing transportation. C. advise her of the potential risks of refusing EMS treatment and transport her against her will. D. begin treatment without her consent.Question 74 A DNR order is MOST accurately defined as a: A. written order designed to tell health care providers when resuscitation is or is not appropriate. B. legal document signed by at least two physicians that prohibits resuscitative efforts in terminally ill patients. C. written or oral directive that stipulates the care that a patient should receive near the end of his or her life. D. legal document that is executed by the patient while he or she still has decision-making capacity. Question 75 A Medical Order for Life-Sustaining Treatment (MOLST) would MOST likely apply to a patient: A. who is in respiratory failure but has decision-making capacity. B. who has been in cardiac arrest for less than 10 minutes. C. with a terminal illness whose cardiac arrest was witnessed. D. with impending pulmonary failure but who is not in cardiac arrest. Question 76 EMS provider's actions are considered to be grossly negligent if he or she: A. willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care. B. only provides basic life support to a critical patient. C. makes a simple mistake that causes harm to the patient. D. does not consult with online medical control first. Question 77 Abandonment occurs when: A. a patient is released and did not require further medical care. B. a patient refuses care and subsequently dies of his condition. C. care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent. D. an emergency nurse takes a verbal report from a paramedic. Question 78 Documenting a false statement that injures a person's good name or reputation constitutes: A. libel and defamation. B. gross negligence. C. slander and defamation. D. assault and battery. Question 79 Ethics is MOST accurately defined as: A. behavior that is consistent with the law and an attitude that society in general expects. B. the professional behavior that a person's peers as well as the general public expect. C. the philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.D. a code of conduct that can be defined by society, religion, or a person, affecting character, conduct, and conscience. Question 80 Every decision regarding patient care that a paramedic makes should be based on the: A. patient's perception of the problem. B. standards of good medical care. C. possible legal ramifications involved. D. patient's family's personal requests. Question 81 If a paramedic receives an order from a physician that he or she feels is detrimental to the patient's best interests, the paramedic should: A. not carry out the order and discuss the issue with the physician later. B. tell the patient that the physician's order is appropriate for him or her. C. immediately discuss with the physician why the paramedic feels that way. D. carry out the order, but factually and carefully document the event. Question 82 Implied consent is based on the premise that a patient: A. will die unless emergency medical treatment is provided immediately. B. would refuse any emergency medical care if he or she were unconscious. C. is of legal age and is able to make rational decisions regarding his or her care. D. would consent to care because of the seriousness of his or her injury. Question 83 Informed consent involves: A. explaining the rationale for an invasive procedure to a patient after you have already performed it. B. ensuring that a patient understands the potential risks involved in performing a particular procedure. C. a patient verbally expressing his or her wishes for you to proceed with emergency medical treatment. D. carefully explaining the potential ramifications of refusing emergency medical treatment. Question 84 Prior to administering nitroglycerin to a patient with chest pain, the patient denies the use of erectile dysfunction (ED) drugs when asked, even though he took an ED drug a few hours earlier. After being given the nitroglycerin, the patient experiences severe hypotension and almost dies. Which of the following could the paramedic use as a potential defense if the patient attempts to sue? A. Plausible deniabilityB. Patient incompetence C. Qualified immunity D. Contributory negligence Question 85 Provisions of the medical practice act include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. defining the skills that the paramedic legally can perform. B. establishing a means of certification for the paramedic. C. assigning medical directors to EMS systems. D. defining minimum qualifications of the paramedic. Question 86 Proximate cause is MOST accurately defined as: A. an act of ordinary or gross negligence that resulted in further harm to the patient. B. a direct relationship between the mechanism of injury and the patient's injury. C. a link between the paramedic's improper action and the patient's injury. D. an action on the part of the paramedic that improved the patient's condition. Question 87 Scope of practice is defined as: A. national patient care guidelines established by the federal government. B. protocols agreed upon by a consensus of emergency physicians. C. care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state. D. the level of care that an EMS employer allows the paramedic to provide. Question 88 The BEST legal protection for the paramedic is to: A. routinely obtain more than the minimum number of continuing education credits required by the state department of health. B. provide a detailed patient assessment and appropriate medical care, followed by complete and accurate documentation. C. treat all patients with respect and remain aware that patients' cultural beliefs may differ from those of the paramedic. D. always transport the patient to the hospital of the patient's choice, regardless of the patient's clinical condition. Question 89 The BEST way for the paramedic to evaluate a patient's decision-making capacity is to:A. talk to the patient to determine if he or she understands what is happening B. determine if the patient knows what care is appropriate for the situation. C. confirm that the patient is at least 18 years of age or otherwise emancipated. D. ensure that pulse oximetry and blood glucose readings are within normal limits. Question 90 When an administrative agency proposes a licensing action in a state that licenses paramedics, the agency must notify the paramedic of the actions that allegedly constituted the infraction. This is a part of: A. due process. B. the appeal process. C. licensure revocation. D. licensure suspension. Question 91 Which aspect of the HIPAA is MOST pertinent to the paramedic? A. Documenting a thorough patient assessment B. Ensuring that the patient's privacy is protected C. Recovering funds from insurance companies D. Disclosing patient information to the media Question 92 Which of the following is NOT a required element needed to prove negligence? A. An act of omission was the cause of the patient's injury. B. The patient's condition was life threatening. C. The paramedic or EMS system had a duty to act. D. The paramedic committed a breach of duty. Question 93 Which of the following patients is NOT an emancipated minor? A. 17-year-old man who is a member of the U.S. armed forces B. 16-year-old woman who is pregnant and lives with her boyfriend C. 15 year old male who lives alone, supports himself and is a father. D. 17-year-old woman who goes to college and lives with her parents Question 94 Which of the following statements regarding certification is correct? A. Certification is a process in which a certifying entity attests to the fact that the health care provider has mastered a certain skill set. B. Unlike a licensed health care provider, a certified health care provider is not required to obtain continuing education hours. C. A certified health care provider has been granted the authority and privilege to practice medicine in acertain municipality. D. Certification is evidence that an individual has a certain level of credentials based on hours of training and examination. Question 95 Which of the following statements regarding the paramedic-physician relationship is correct? A. The paramedic will be held accountable for his or her own actions. B. The physician is not authorized to restrict the paramedic's practice. C. The physician is legally accountable for actions taken by an employer. D. State EMS legislation is responsible for appointing medical directors. Question 96 While providing care to a seriously ill public official who is semiconscious, a media representative arrives at the scene and inquires about the patient's condition. You should: A. advise the media representative to obtain the information at the hospital. B. tell the media representative that you cannot disclose any information. C. give the media representative the patient's name and age only. D. obtain consent from the patient before releasing any personal information. Question 97 You have been attempting resuscitation of a middle-aged woman for approximately 15 minutes; however, she has not responded to any of your treatment. There is no evidence of hypothermia or drug ingestion, and the cardiac monitor shows asystole. You should: A. determine if she has an advance directive. B. perform CPR only and try to contact her family. C. consider terminating your resuscitative efforts. D. pronounce the patient dead and call the coroner. Question 98 A 49-year-old woman presents with a severe headache, a temperature of 103.2°F, and photosensitivity. Her blood pressure is 140/76 mm Hg, pulse rate is 120 beats/min and strong, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min and regular. While caring for this patient, it is MOST important to: A. attempt to assist her ventilations with a bag-mask device. B. protect yourself from any nasopharyngeal secretions. C. treat her as though she is experiencing viral meningitis. D. apply a cardiac monitor and assess her tachycardia. Question 99 A health care worker's fear of contracting a communicable disease is MOST often the result of: A. a lack of proper education and training B. a prior history of disease exposure. C. statistics published by the media. D. obsessive-compulsive disorder.Question 100 A paramedic would MOST likely be infected with TB if he or she: A. performed mouth-to-mouth on a patient with active untreated TB. B. was exposed to blood-stained vomitus of a patient with active TB. C. received a needlestick from a person suspected of having active TB. D. was close to a coughing patient who had a positive TB skin test. Question 101 A person with TB infection: A. usually has a negative chest radiograph. B. has active TB and is highly contagious. C. has tested positive for exposure to TB. D. poses a significant health risk to others. Question 102 According to Part G of the Ryan White Comprehensive AIDS Resources Emergency Act, medical facilities are required to notify emergency responders of potentially infectious diseases involving patients they transported no longer than ___ hours from the time they have a suspect case. A. 12 B. 24 C. 48 D. 6 Question 103 In contrast to body substance isolation precautions, standard precautions: A. describe a universal approach in which all blood and bodily fluids are assumed to be infectious. B. is a term used to describe infection control practices that reduce the risk of exposure to blood. C. emphasize protection from moist body substances that may transmit bacterial or viral infections. D. specify that sweat is an effective carrier of infectious diseases, even if the sweat makes contact with intact skin. Question 104 In the context of a communicable disease, a ___________ is a place where organisms may live and multiply. A. host B. reservoir C. carrier D. contaminantQuestion 105 Most infectious disease exposures in health care providers occur due to: A. indirect contact. B. sharps injuries C. inhaled droplets. D. blood splatter. Question 106 Personal protective equipment: A. is the most effective means of preventing the spread of an infectious disease. B. is required by the CDC when a paramedic draws blood or gives an injection. C. is a standardized set of equipment that is used with every patient contact. D. serves as a secondary protective barrier beyond what your body provides. Question 107 The MOST effective ways to protect your patients from nosocomial infections include: A. receiving the hepatitis B vaccine, having a titer drawn every 2 years, and wearing gloves on every EMS call. B. not reporting to work when you are sick and keeping the interior of the ambulance clean and disinfected C. routinely placing masks on all patients you treat and ensuring that your vaccinations are current. D. placing gloves on all patients with drug-resistant infections and placing a mask on yourself. Question 108 Virulence is defined as the: A. ability of an organism to invade and create disease in a host. B. severity of infection once an organism enters the body. C. degree of difficulty that it takes to destroy an organism. D. amount of time that it takes for an organism to infect the host. Question 109 When a disease infects large numbers of people and spreads all over the world, it is considered a(n): A. pandemic. B. endemic. C. epidemic. D. outbreak. Question 110 When washing your hands after a call, you should: A. use an antimicrobial, alcohol-based foam or gel.B. scrub your hands vigorously with an antibacterial gel. C. wash with cold water and let your hands air dry. D. wash your hands for at least 10 seconds. Question 111 Which of the following examples provides the BEST description of indirect contact with a microorganism? A. Becoming infected with West Nile virus from a mosquito bite B. Making brief physical contact with a person who has an infectious disease C. Inhaling infected droplets from a person after he or she sneezes or coughs D. Touching a bloody stretcher railing with an open wound on your hand Question 112 A medication is called an antagonist if: A. the chemical mediator of a receptor has a higher affinity than the medication. B. it stimulates a receptor site to cause the response that the receptor normally causes. C. it bothers people. D. it has a higher affinity for the receptor site than the chemical mediator and will block the effects. Question 113 A medication that initiates or alters a cellular activity by attaching to receptor sites and prompting a cell response is said to be: A. synergistic. B. an agonist. C. a competitive binder. D. an antagonist. Question 114 A medication that possesses a negative chronotropic effect will: A. increase cardiac electrical conduction velocity. B. cause an increase in blood pressure. C. decrease myocardial contractile force. D. cause a decrease in the heart rate. Question 115 ACE inhibitor medications lower blood pressure by: A. blocking the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. B. increasing cardiac afterload and reducing cardiac output. C. selectively binding to alpha-1 and alpha-2 receptors. D. blocking the release of angiotensin I from the renal system. Question 116 Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that: A. breaks down acetylcholine.B. slows cardiac conduction. C. decreases the heart rate. D. promotes acetylcholine secretion. Question 117 All of the following are endogenous catecholamines, EXCEPT: A. epinephrine. B. dopamine. C. atropine. D. norepinephrine. Question 118 All of the following are Schedule II substances, EXCEPT: A. fentanyl. B. heroin. C. Ritalin. D. cocaine. Question 119 An undesirable clinical change caused by a medication that causes some degree of harm or discomfort to the patient is called a(n): A. idiosyncrasy. B. adverse effect. C. placebo effect. D. side effect. Question 120 Beta blockers should be used with extreme caution in patients with reactive airway because: A. there are no beta-blockers that selectively target beta-1 receptors only. B. beta-2 receptors can potentially be antagonized, resulting in bronchospasm C. they inhibit catecholamine release, potentially causing bronchoconstriction. D. beta-1 receptor antagonism will result in profound bronchoconstriction. Question 121 Cross-tolerance to a medication occurs when: A. repeated exposure to a medication within a particular class causes tolerance to other medications in the same class.B. the body's metabolism increases, resulting in a decreased concentration of the medication present near receptor sites. C. repeated doses of a medication within a short time rapidly cause tolerance, which renders the medication ineffective. D. repeated exposure to a medication causes an abnormal tolerance to the adverse or therapeutic effects of the medication. Question 122 Decreased efficacy or potency of a medication when taken repeatedly by a patient is called: A. tolerance. B. habituation. C. immunity. D. addiction. Question 123 Newer medications are designed to target only specific receptor sites on certain cells in an attempt to: A. reduce their therapeutic effect. B. minimize the adverse effects. C. treat more than one condition. D. eliminate all side effects. Question 124 Patients with primary pulmonary hypertension may experience acute decompensation if they are given a: A. bronchodilator. B. vasopressor. C. salicylate. D. diuretic. Question 125 Patients with _________________ are at significant risk for toxic effects of medications or metabolic waste products in the body. A. stomach cancer B. heart failure C. renal failure D. diabetes mellitus Question 126 Stimulation of alpha-1 receptors results in: A. insulin secretion. B. vasoconstriction. C. arterial dilation.D. glucagon secretion. Question 127 Stimulation of alpha-2 receptors: A. increases the release of norepinephrine. B. constricts the vascular smooth muscle. Incorrect C. causes profound systemic hypertension. D. suppresses the release of norepinephrine. Question 128 Stimulation of beta-1 adrenergic receptors would produce all of the following effects, EXCEPT: A. an increase in heart rate. B. increased cardiac electrical conduction. C. increased GI tract motility. D. increased force of contraction secretion. Question 129 Stimulation of beta-2 receptors will cause: A. vasoconstriction and hypertension. B. bronchoconstriction. C. bronchodilation. D. a decreased release of norepinephrine. Question 130 The ability of a medication to initiate or alter cell activity in a therapeutic or desired manner is referred to as: A. potency. B. affinity. C. efficacy. D. the threshold level. Question 131 The action of the body in response to a medication is called: A. biotransformation. B. pharmacodynamics. C. pharmacology. D. pharmacokinetics. Question 132 The generic name of a medication: A. is proprietary and cannot be reproduced. B. is proposed by the manufacturer. C. contains a string of letters and numbers.D. does not require FDA approval. Question 133 The physical, emotional, or behavioral need for a medication in order to maintain a certain level of “normal” function is called: A. dependence. B. synergism. C. habituation. D. withdrawal. Question 134 The term affinity, as it applies to pharmacology, is MOST accurately defined as the: A. strength of the bond between a medication and its receptor. B. process of a medication binding to a receptor. C. blocking of a receptor site by a particular medication. D. ability of a medication to bind to a receptor. Question 135 The vagus nerve releases _________________, which acts on _________________ receptors. A. epinephrine, beta-2 B. norepinephrine, alpha-1 C. acetylcholine, muscarinic-2 D. acetylcholinesterase, nicotinic Question 136 Unlike Schedule I drugs, Schedule II drugs have: A. limited dependence potential. B. no accepted medical application. C. accepted medical uses. D. a higher abuse potential. Question 137 A common cause of overhydration is: A. gastrointestinal drainage. B. hypertension. C. prolonged hyperventilation. D. kidney failure. Question 138A hypertonic solution has an osmolarity higher than that of serum, meaning that the solution: A. may cause the cells to expand and rupture due to the increased intracellular osmotic pressure exerted by the solution. B. pulls fluid from the intracellular and interstitial compartments into the intravascular compartment. C. must be isotonic. D. does not effect fluid shift. Question 139 A vasovagal reaction is the result of: A. dilation of the vasculature. B. acute bradycardia. C. massive vasoconstriction. D. sudden hypertension. Question 140 Administering large amounts of an isotonic crystalloid solution to a patient with internal bleeding would MOST likely: A. expand the vascular space and improve systemic perfusion. B. cause acute hypotension as fluid is drawn from the vascular space. C. increase the severity of internal bleeding by interfering with hemostasis. D. change the ratio of hemoglobin and red blood cells. Question 141 After inserting the needle during an intramuscular injection, but before delivering the medication, you should: A. ensure that you stretch the skin taut. B. look in the barrel of the syringe for blood. C. pull back on the plunger to aspirate for blood. D. inquire about any medication allergies. Question 142 Approximately 20 minutes after starting an IV on a 40-year-old man, he begins complaining of a backache and chills. You should be MOST suspicious of: A. an air embolus. B. circulatory overload. C. a pyrogenic reaction. D. an allergic reaction.Question 143 Approximately ___% of an adult male's weight is constituted by water. A. 50 B. 40 C. 60 D. 70 Question 144 Cations are electrolytes that have an overall __________ charge, and anions are electrolytes that have an overall ___________ charge. A. negative, neutral B. positive, negative C. negative, positive D. neutral, positive Question 145 Cerebrospinal fluid and intraocular fluid are types of: A. interstitial fluid B. intravascular fluid. C. intracellular fluid. D. plasma. Question 146 Colloid solutions: A. include solutions such as lactated Ringer's and normal saline and rapidly expand the intravascular compartment. B. are safe to use in the prehospital setting because they rapidly and effectively expand the intravascular compartment. C. contain proteins that are too large to pass out of the capillary membranes, so the solutions remain in the vascular compartment. D. do not contain large molecules and are therefore ineffective in expanding the intravascular compartment. Question 147 Hypotonic solutions: A. include normal saline and lactated Ringer's solution. B. hydrate the cells while depleting the vascular compartment. C. are the preferred solutions to use in patients with head trauma. D. draw fluid from the cells and into the vascular space.Question 148 Intracellular fluid: A. accounts for about 15% of body weight. B. transports red and white blood cells. C. is the fluid that bathes the cells. D. is the water contained inside the cells. Question 149 IO cannulation is contraindicated in all of the following situations, EXCEPT: A. penetrating thoracic trauma. B. fracture of the chosen extremity. C. the presence of a peripheral IV line. D. bilateral knee replacements. Question 150 Medication absorption through a nitroglycerin patch would be increased if the patient has: A. skin that is thin or nonintact. B. peripheral vascular disease. C. scar tissue under the patch. D. a low systolic blood pressure. Question 151 Medication routes, from slowest to fastest rates of absorption, are: A. intravenous, inhalation, sublingual, subcutaneous, intramuscular. B. subcutaneous, intramuscular, sublingual, inhalation, intravenous. C. subcutaneous, sublingual, inhalation, intramuscular, intravenous. D. intramuscular, sublingual, subcutaneous, intravenous, inhalation. Question 152 Osmosis occurs when: A. water moves from an area of higher solute concentration to an area of lower solute concentration. B. solutes move from an area of lower water concentration to an area of higher water concentration. C. water moves from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. D. solutes move from an area of higher water concentration to an area of lower water concentration. Question 153 Signs and symptoms of circulatory overload include: A. diarrhea.B. headache. C. hypertension. D. collapsed jugular veins. Incorrect Question 154 Sodium is a ________ cation and can react completely with _______. A. monovalent, 2 mEq of a singly charged anion B. bivalent, 2 mEq of a doubly charged cation C. monovalent, 1 mEq of a singly charged anion D. bivalent, 1 mEq of a doubly charged cation Question 155 Solutes are defined as: Select one: A. solutions that contain dissolved components. B. atoms that carry an electrical charge. C. solutions that exclusively carry electrolytes. D. the dissolved particles contained in a solvent. Question 156 The primary buffer used in all circulating body fluids is: A. potassium. B. phosphorus. C. magnesium. D. bicarbonate. Question 157 The tonicity of a solution is determined by the: A. permeability of the cell and the ability of sodium and potassium to actively move across its membrane. B. concentration of sodium in a solution and the movement of water in relation to the sodium levels inside and outside the cell. C. amount of antidiuretic hormone the body produces and the volume of water that is reabsorbed in the tubules of the kidneys. D. velocity with which potassium ions shift outside of the cell and sodium ions shift inside the cell. Question 158 When administering sublingual nitroglycerin to a patient, you should do all of the following, EXCEPT: A. ensure that the patient's mucous membranes are moist. B. instruct the patient to chew and swallow the tablet. C. perform a focused history and physical examination. D. thoroughly assess the patient for any transdermal patches. Question 159 Which of the following statements regarding isotonic crystalloid solutions is correct?A. You should infuse 1 mL of isotonic crystalloid solution for every 3 mL of estimated blood loss. B. Approximately two thirds of infused isotonic crystalloid solution will leave the vascular space within 1 hour. C. The ability of isotonic crystalloids to cross membranes and alter fluid levels makes them dangerous to use for fluid replacement. D. Isotonic crystalloids, such as normal saline, have the ability to carry and deliver oxygen to the body's cells. Question 160 “Everyday” calls are the most dangerous kinds of calls the paramedic will run because: A. everyday calls tend to attract a lot of bystanders. B. he or she becomes naturally comfortable with them. C. most of these calls have a high potential for violence. D. law enforcement personnel are often not available. Question 161 A critical incident is MOST accurately defined as: A. a situation that completely incapacitates a person's ability to cope with the acute stress reaction at the scene. B. an incident that overwhelms the ability of an EMS worker or system to cope with the experience, either at the scene or later. C. any incident that completely overwhelms a paramedic's ability to manage the short-term stress caused by the incident. D. a delayed stress reaction to an incident that is similar to what has been experienced in the past. Question 162 A formal critical incident stress debriefing (CISD): A. is usually coordinated by one or more professional counselors 24 to 72 hours after an incident that is causing persistent symptoms in personnel. B. is a one-on-one session in which a psychiatrist or psychologist meets with each person who was directly involved in an incident that causes stress. C. is usually a brief defusing session that is typically conducted at the scene of a major incident and facilitates the normal process of grieving. D. typically takes about 1 hour and is usually conducted within the workplace with the EMS provider's supervisor and medical director present. Question 163 A man having a possible heart attack redirects his anger away from his condition and toward the paramedic. This is called: A. regression. B. displacement C. projection.D. digression. Question 164 A patient who subconsciously converts his or her anxiety into a bodily dysfunction is experiencing: A. conversion hysteria B. blind panic. C. clinical depression. D. regressive behavior. Question 165 Any time you need to move a patient who cannot or should not walk, it is MOST important to consider: A. the type of moving device needed. B. how far the patient must be moved. C. the need for extra help. D. why the patient cannot walk. Question 166 Biologic stress is MOST accurately defined as: A. the nonspecific response of the body to any demand made upon it. B. a prolonged and severe discharge of the sympathetic nervous system. C. a predictable sequence of physiologic events caused by a stressor D. stress that most often occurs following a positive event or situation. Question 167 Burnout is a consequence of: A. chronic, unrelieved stress. B. underlying depression. C. many years in EMS. D. a high call volume. Question 168 Burnout is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. cynicism after being a paramedic for many years. B. an acute reaction to an overwhelming situation. C. a person's emotional reaction to a stressful event. D. the exhaustion of physical or emotional strength. Question 169 By using the mechanisms of _____________ and _____________, parents or caregivers of an injured child often express their guilty feelings as aggression or anger toward the paramedic. A. regression, redirection B. regression, misplacement C. digression, projectionD. projection, displacement Question 170 Common signs of PTSD include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. recurring mental flashbacks of the incident. B. feelings of guilt that you performed inadequately. C. difficulty getting an incident out of your thoughts. D. a change in appetite following a serious incident. Question 171 Consequences of poor nutrition include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. hair loss B. obesity. C. heart disease. D. diabetes. Question 172 During an emergency call, you begin experiencing a significant amount of anxiety. The patient's family is present and the patient's condition is critical. You should: A. request a relief paramedic and disengage from patient care at once. B. tighten and then relax specific muscle groups to initiate relaxation. C. try to ignore the anxiety as best you can and take care of the patient. D. take deep breaths in through your nose and out through your mouth. Question 173 Negative or injurious stress is also called: A. eustress. B. redirected stress. C. projected stress. D. distress. Question 174 Prolonged or excessive stress has been proven to be a strong contributor to: A. depression. B. schizophrenia. C. bipolar disorder. D. hypotension. Question 175 Standard precautions differ from universal precautions in that standard precautions: A. are designed to approach all body fluids as being potentially infectious. B. are only applied when you encounter a patient who is actively bleeding. C. involve the use of latex gloves when you make contact with any patient.D. assume that only blood and certain other fluids are infected with HIV. Question 176 The ability to remain calm and think clearly when everything else is in disarray is a trait of: A. professionalism. B. empathy. C. competence. D. compassion. Question 177 The fight-or-flight response is characterized by all of the following physiologic responses, EXCEPT: A. an increased flow of blood to the skeletal muscles. B. decreased sympathetic tone and pupil constriction. C. shunting of blood away from the gastrointestinal tract. D. mobilization of glucose and an increased heart rate. Question 178 The MOST appropriate way to wash your hands following patient care involves: A. applying isopropyl alcohol and then rinsing your hands with clean water. B. using waterless hand cleaner gels or wipes instead of antibacterial soap. C. soaking your hands in warm water and rinsing with clean water. D. washing vigorously with antibacterial soap for at least 30 seconds Question 179 To protect your back when lifting, you should: A. spread your legs approximately 6″ apart whenever you lift. B. maintain a slight curvature of your back whenever you lift a patient. C. keep your back in a straight, upright position and lift without twisting. D. use the powerful muscles of your lower back to help support weight. Question 180 When dealing with a grieving child, it is important to remember that: A. children 9 to 12 years of age may want to know details of the incident. B. family members should be discouraged from crying in front of the child. C. you should advise family members to change the child's routine. D. children as young as 1 year of age are aware that something bad has occurred. Question 181Which of the following statements regarding a patient's reaction to an illness or injury and his or her cultural background is MOST correct? A. You should touch the patient early in the assessment process to determine his or her cultural customs. B. You will not be able to manage patient care well if you do not respect the culture of your patient. C. Refusal of a patient to maintain eye contact with you indicates an emotional indifference, not a cultural one. D. In most cultures, direct eye contact shows deference to the paramedic's authority and uniform. Question 182 While starting an IV on a patient complaining of abdominal pain, you inadvertently get stuck with the needle before you can place it in the sharps container. You should: A. continue with patient care, report the incident to your infection control officer, and schedule an appointment with your physician. B. immediately clean the affected area with isopropyl alcohol, ask the patient if he has any infectious diseases, and report the incident to your supervisor. C. complete your care of the patient, wash the affected area as soon as you reach the hospital, and report the incident to your supervisor. D. ask the driver to pull over, assume the role of driver, continue on to the hospital, and see a physician in the emergency department. Question 183 You have loaded a cardiac arrest patient onto the stretcher and are preparing to lift the stretcher. When doing so, you should: A. keep your back in a slightly curved position. B. recall that the foot end of the stretcher is the heaviest. C. remember to lift with your back, not your legs. D. take unnecessary equipment off the stretcher. Question 184 As your unit arrives first due on the scene of an accident, you observe a group of bystanders surrounding a wrecked vehicle. The driver appears unresponsive and remains in the vehicle. You should: A. assess the scene carefully and notify other responding units of any hazards that may be present. B. exit your unit, immediately move the bystanders to an area of safety, and gain access to the patient. C. remain in the ambulance and wait for law enforcement personnel to arrive at the scene. D. quickly gain access to the patient, remain alert for any scene hazards, and keep the bystanders away from the vehicle. Question 185 ________ is a way of buffering bad news until a person can mobilize the resources to deal with that newsmore effectively. A. Anger B. Denial C. Bargaining D. Depression Question 186 ______________ of one sort or another is necessary all the time, for growth, for development, or just for meeting the demands of everyday life. A. Redirection B. Digression C. Stress D. Adaptation Question 187 A commercial truck was involved in a wreck and is spilling anhydrous ammonia on the roadway. The incident commander has already established the hot, warm, and cold zones as dictated by the chemical involved. As one of the paramedics at the scene, you should anticipate that your role will MOST likely involve: A. performing triage and treatment in the cold zone. B. evacuating residents who live near the incident. C. removing only critical patients from the hot zone. D. assisting with decontamination in the warm zone. Question 188 After ensuring your own safety, which of the following is your next priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident? A. Identify the hazardous material involved. B. Evacuate residents within a 3-mile radius. C. Begin decontaminating all involved patients. D. Immediately move patients to a safe place. Question 189 Cyanide is a chemical asphyxiant, which means that it: A. destroys red blood cells and prevents red blood cell production. B. impairs pulmonary respiration by causing pulmonary edema. C. interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.D. binds to hemoglobin and prevents oxygen transport to the cells. Question 190 Decontaminating a patient with copious amounts of water: A. should not include the eyes, as this often causes further injury. B. should involve the use of a brush to maximize decontamination. C. is generally discouraged, as this may cause runoff of the material. D. decreases the dose effect of the hazardous material on the patient. Question 191 Following exposure to an industrial pesticide, a patient is responsive to pain only, is coughing up copious secretions, and has a heart rate of 40 beats/min. Priority treatment for this patient includes: A. oral suctioning. B. atropine sulfate. C. pralidoxime. D. tracheal intubation. Question 192 If you are trained in hazardous materials at the awareness level, you should be able to: A. recognize potential hazards and the need for additional resources. B. perform patient care activities in the command and support center. C. care for patients who may present a risk of secondary contamination. D. coordinate activities at the scene of a hazardous materials incident. Question 193 When approaching an overturned tanker truck that is not displaying a warning placard, it is MOST important for the paramedic to maintain a high index of suspicion because: A. tankers carrying small amounts of a hazardous material may not be required by law to display a warning placard. B. warning placards are only displayed on one side of tanker trucks, and that side may not be visible due to the crash. C. all tanker trucks carry some type of hazardous material, regardless of whether a placard is displayed. D. many companies that transport hazardous materials do not abide by federal law and do not display warning placards. Question 194 While preparing to receive patients at the scene of a hazardous material spill, you see a middle-aged man approaching your ambulance. He is covered with a green liquid, is dyspneic, and states that he “barely got out of there alive!” You should: A. get close enough to the man so that you can visually triage him, and decontaminate him if he is stable. B. quickly don standard precautions, assist the patient to the ambulance, and apply high-flow oxygen.C. advise the man to proceed back to the incident site so that he can be properly decontaminated. D. tell him to stop immediately and inform the incident commander that the patient has not been decontaminated. Question 195 You should be particularly suspicious that a hazardous materials incident is the result of a terrorist attack when it occurs at a/an: A. educational institution. B. manufacturing facility. C. agricultural operation. D. government building. Question 196 A young man presents with severe respiratory distress. He is conscious, but confused, and smells of freshly cut grass. Auscultation of his breath sounds reveals coarse crackles in all lung fields, and he is coughing up copious secretions. This patient's clinical presentation is MOST consistent with exposure to: A. soman or tabun. B. phosgene. C. V agent. D. chlorine. Question 197 Biologic agents are: A. synthetically manufactured and weaponized by mixing the synthetic component with an organism. B. the ideal weapons of mass destruction if the terrorist's objective is to affect a small geographic area. C. least preferred by terrorists because they are difficult to disseminate over a large population. D. naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory. Question 198 If you are at the scene of an incident that potentially involves a weapon of mass destruction and other emergency resources are en route, it is MOST important for you to give the dispatcher information regarding the: A. estimated number of patients. B. optimal route of approach. C. suspected weapon involved. D. specific resources required. Question 199 In contrast to viruses and bacteria, neurotoxins: A. are not contagious, but do have a faster onset of symptoms. B. have been used successfully as a weapon of mass destruction. C. are characterized by a slow, insidious onset of symptoms. D. can only enter the body through the inhalation route.Question 200 Nerve agents block _______________, an essential enzyme of the nervous system. A. acetylcholine B. norepinephrine C. epinephrine D. cholinesterase Question 201 Over the course of your 24-hour shift, you and your partner responded to seven calls involving patients with signs and symptoms of the flu. To the best of your knowledge, your area is not in the midst of a flu outbreak. You should: A. report these calls to your supervisor or local health department B. seek medical attention at once and receive a flu vaccination. C. advise area hospitals that you suspect a biologic terrorist event. D. immediately check to see what the current terrorist threat level is. Question 202 Signs and symptoms of nerve agent exposure include all of the following, EXCEPT: A. constricted pupils. B. tachycardia. C. bronchorrhea. D. excessive salivation. Question 203 The BEST way to protect yourself from the effects of radiation is to: A. use time, distance, and shielding to your advantage B. wear a suit designed to completely shield yourself. C. wear a lead suit and self-contained breathing appar