PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM LATEST COMPLETE SOLUTION 2023/2024 (Graded A+)

PATHO 370 MIDTERM EXAM LATEST COMPLETE GUIDE 2023. PATHO 370 Pathophysiology. Gas exchange occurs in which of the respiratory system's structures? Selected Answer: Trache a Correct Answer: Alveoli Response Feedback: The alveoli allow air to come in indirect contact with the bloodstream through the pulmonary capillary system. This alveolar membrane, which is one cell thick, allows carbon dioxide to diffuse into the alveoli from the bloodstream and oxygen to diffuse to the bloodstream from the alveoli. Sinuses are hollow spaces found in the skull. The trachea is a structure that allows passage of gases to and from the gas exchange units (alveoli). Bronchi are branches of the conducting airways that allow passage of gases to and from the gas exchange units (alveoli).  Question 2 A patient with heart failure reports awakening intermittently with shortness of breath. Which terms appropriately describes this clinical manifestation? Selected Answer: Dyspnea Correct Answer: Paroxysmal nocturnal Response Feedback: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea refers to intermittent attacks of severe dyspnea that occur during the night. Dyspnea is a general term referring to difficulty breathing. Cyanosis is the appearance of a blue or purple coloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to the tissues near the skin surface being low on oxygen. Bradypnea describes abnormal slowness of breathing.  Question 3 What factor causes a congenital heart disease to produce cyanosis? Selected Answer: Left-to-right shunting of blood Correct Answer: Right-to-left shunting of blood Response Feedback: Disorders that result in right-to-left shunting cause cyanosis. A left-to-right shunt occurs when oxygenated blood from the left side of the heart or aorta flows back into the right side to be recirculated through the lungs. The blood reaching the systemic circulation is oxygenated and the infant is not cyanotic (acyanotic defect). However, the right side of the heart has an increased workload because of the extra shunt blood. In time, the overload of the right side of the heart can result in right ventricular hypertrophy and high right-sided heart pressures. Large ventricular septal defects may be apparent at birth because of rapidly developing rightsided heart failure and a loud systolic murmur. The majority of atrial septal defects occur at the location of the foramen ovale. The abnormal septal opening may be of variable size. Small defects (1 cm) are well tolerated. Even larger atrial septal defects may be asymptomatic for many years as long as the shunt flow is left to right and therefore acyanotic.  Question 4 A patient education intervention that will help decrease the emergence of resistant infections is to instruct the patient to Selected Answer: Take all the antibiotics ordered even if feeling well after a few days to prevent antibiotic defiant bacteria Correct Answer: Take all the antibiotics ordered even if feeling well after a few days to prevent antibiotic defiant bacteria Response Feedback : The patient should take all the antibiotics ordered, even if feeling better, to eradicate the moderately resistant microorganisms. Viruses are not impacted by antibacterial medications. Sharing antibiotics indicates that the full course of the medication isn’t being taken, and so contributing to the development of resistant microorganisms. If medication is stopped prematurely, moderately resistant organisms are selected for and become the predominant species, making it more difficult to eradicate next time.  Question 5 0 out of 0 points Cellular hypoxia results in Selected Answer: Failure of the sodium-potassium pump Correct Answer: Failure of the sodium-potassium pump Response Feedback: Hypoxia is a loss of oxygen to the cell that causes ATP activity to cease. ATP provides the power required to drive the sodium-potassium pump. pH decreases in hypoxia (respiratory acidosis). Hypoxia is a loss of oxygen to the cell that causes ATP activity to cease. Deposits of calcium salts occur in conditions of altered calcium intake, excretion, or metabolism.  Question 6 0 out of 0 points What is the underlying problem common among all types of shock? Selected Answer: Generalized vasodilation Correct Answer: Inadequate cellular oxygenation Response Feedback: Although each type of shock has specific characteristics, all are associated with a deficiency of cellular oxygen consumption. Inadequate cellular oxygenation may result from decreased cardiac output, maldistribution of blood flow, or reduced blood oxygen content. The impaired oxygen utilization by cells may lead to cell death, organ dysfunction, and stimulation of inflammatory reactions. Cardiac failure can be an outcome, but is not a common cause in all types of shock. Vasodilation occurs in only selective forms of shock. Faulty compensatory mechanisms may contribute to the seriousness of all shocks but that is not the cause of all forms of shock.  Question 7 0 out of 0 points What is the name for the mRNA sequences that contain only the wanted segments? Selected Answer: PremRNA Correct Answer: Exon Response Feedback: An exon is the mRNA sequence that contains only the wanted segments. Introns are the unwanted areas that are removed in the nucleus by a complex splicing process, thus leaving exons. Pre-mRNA is the original RNA transcript before removal of bases that are unnecessary. Spliceosomes are the areas of the nucleus that are a specialized RNA protein complex that removes introns.  Question 8 0 out of 0 points Thrombosis in the microcirculation throughout the body is called Selected Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) Response Feedback : Thrombosis may also be initiated by a generalized reduction in flow and release of vasoactive substances that occur in shock states. Systemic derangement in coagulation takes place in disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), resulting in thrombosis in the microcirculation throughout the body. A stroke results from the obstruction of blood flow in or to the brain by a clot. Atherosclerosis is a circulatory condition that results in the inability of vessels to regulate blood flow as a result of the stiffening of their walls. An MI is a result of obstructed blood flow in a vessel supplying the heart muscle itself.  Question 9 0 out of 0 points Which term is used to identify hypertension that has a specific disease as its cause? Selected Answer: Primary Correct Answer: Seconda ry Response Feedback: Secondary is the term given to hypertension that is secondary to a specific disease. Idiopathic, primary, and essential hypertension are interchangeable terms for hypertension that cannot be related to a specific disease/cause.  Question 10 0 out of 0 points Which statement is true regarding the epithelial system of tissue? Selected Answer: Stratified epithelium is several layers thick. Correct Answer: Stratified epithelium is several layers thick. Response Feedback: Stratified epithelium that makes up the epidermis of the skin is several layers thick. Epithelial cells cover the majority of the external surfaces of the body and line the glands, blood vessels, and internal surfaces. Keratin is a tough protective protein that is present in the outer surface of flattened, dead epithelial cells. Pseudostratified epithelium is a single layer, but it appears to be more than one layer because of the mixture of cell shapes.  Question 11 0 out of 0 points Which term refers to a state of tension that can lead to disruption or threaten physical stability? Selected Answer: Stres s Correct Answer: Stres s Response Feedback: Stress is defined as a state of tension that can lead to disruption or threaten homeostasis. Adaptive changes occur when a body function changes to work within its environment. Exhaustion occurs when there is a negative sequela. Homeostasis is dynamic change.  Question 12 0 out of 0 points Which type of cellular adaptation is most likely to occur as the result of chronic ischemia to a region? Selected Answer: Hyperplas ia Correct Answer: Atrophy Response Ischemia is inadequate blood supply to a tissue. Chronic Feedback: sublethal ischemia usually results in cell atrophy. Hypertrophy would result in an increase in cell size in response to increased physiological demand. Hyperplasia would result in an increased number of cells in response to increased physiological demand. Metaplasia is the replacement of one differentiated cell type with another better suited for the situation  Question 13 0 out of 0 points Which diagnostic analysis is used to identify patients with heart failure? (Select all that apply.) Selected Answers: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) ANP (atrial natriuretic peptide) Echocardiogram Correct Answers: BNP (B-type natriuretic peptide) Echocardiogram Chest x-ray film Response Feedback: BNP is a blood test that assists in identifying patients with heart failure. An echocardiogram uses sound waves to create a moving picture of the heart and is used in the diagnosis of heart failure. A chest x-ray is a physical diagnostic test that shows heart structures and is used in the diagnosis of heart failure. Complete blood count (CBC) is a blood analysis used to determine the composition of blood related to amounts of specific cells in a serum sample. The overall effect of ANP on the body is to counter increases in blood pressure and volume caused by the renin-angiotensin system.  Question 14 0 out of 0 points Which statement is true about disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? Selected Answer: It is both a bleeding and clotting disorder. Correct Answer: It is both a bleeding and clotting disorder. Response Feedback: DIC is both a bleeding and clotting disorder. There are two types, with the chronic type being more prone to thrombotic episodes because the liver and bone marrow are functioning at a higher level and are able to produce more clotting factors and platelets. There is a rise in fibrin split products secondary to the destruction of clots. The fibrinogen level decreases as the body uses it up.  Question 15 0 out of 0 points The role of the circulatory system is to do which of the following? (Select all that apply.) Selected Answers: Transport O2 and nutrients throughout the body Remove waste products found within the body Move blood systemically from the right side of the heart Correct Answers: Transport O2 and nutrients throughout the body Remove waste products found within the body Response Feedback: The primary functions of the circulatory system include the transportation of O2 and nutrients within the body and the removal of metabolic waste products within the body. Movement of blood through the lungs is via the right side of the heart. Systemic blood flow is supplied by the left side of the heart. Nutrients are absorbed into the blood as it moves through the gastrointestinal tract via splanchnic circulation, and O2 uptake and the release of CO2 occur in the specialized vascular bed of the pulmonary circulation.  Question 16 0 out of 0 points Which statement concerning the location of specific buffers is correct? (Select all that apply.) Selected Answers: Phosphate buffers are found in the intracellular space. Hemoglobin buffers are found inside the erythrocytes. Bicarbonate buffers are found in the extracellular space. Protein buffers are found in the intracellular compartment. Correct Answers: Phosphate buffers are found in the intracellular space. Hemoglobin buffers are found inside the erythrocytes. Bicarbonate buffers are found in the extracellular space. Protein buffers are found in the intracellular compartment. Response Feedback: Bicarbonate buffers are found in the extracellular space. Phosphate buffers are found in the intracellular space and urine. Hemoglobin buffers are found inside the erythrocytes. Protein buffers are found in the intracellular and vascular compartments. Protein buffers are not found in human urine.  Question 17 0 out of 0 points Restoration of effective function is the goal of which level of prevention? Selected Answer: Tertiar y Correct Answer: Tertiar y Response Feedback: Tertiary prevention (appropriate in the stage of advanced disease or disability) includes rehabilitative and supportive care and attempts to alleviate disability and restore effective functioning. Primary prevention is prevention of disease by altering susceptibility or reducing exposure for susceptible individuals. Clinical is a stage referred to in early disease prevention (secondary). Secondary prevention is the early detection, screening, and management of the disease.  Question 18 0 out of 0 points What is the difference between capillary fluid pressure and plasma colloid osmotic pressure? Selected Answer: Capillary fluid pressure is the fluid pressure outside the capillary and is the force pushing fluid from the interstitium from the capillary; plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the primary force because of the presence of anions, which result in fluid remaining in the capillary. Correct Answer: Capillary fluid pressure is the fluid pressure inside the capillary and is the force pushing fluid from the capillary into the interstitium; plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the primary force because of the presence of plasma proteins, which results in fluid remaining in the capillary. Response Feedback: Capillary fluid pressure is the fluid pressure inside the capillary and is the force pushing fluid from the capillary into the interstitium (called hydrostatic pressure). Plasma colloid osmotic pressure is the primary force because of the presence of plasma proteins, which result in fluid remaining in the capillary. Most plasma proteins remain in the capillaries because they are such large molecules that they are unable to move easily through the capillary walls. The other options do not correctly define the terms or the processes.  Question 19 0 out of 0 points Which statement(s) are true regarding post-exposure prophylaxis? (Select all that apply.) Selected Answers: All exposed individuals require a protease inhibitor drug regimen. Prophylaxis for a significant exposure should be started immediately. Postexposure medication treatment last at least 4 weeks, or even longer. Correct Answers: Prophylaxis for a significant exposure should be started immediately. Postexposure medication treatment last at least 4 weeks, or even longer. Two or more medications may be included in the medication regimen. Exposure, sexual or otherwise, requires similar medication protocols. Response Feedback: Significant exposure to HIV- infected blood or body fluids such as a needle stick, require that post-exposure prevention protocol be initiated immediately. The length of administration of the agents depends on multiple factors and may be 4 weeks or longer. Often postexposure protocols involve the administration of two or three medications. This same protocol has been advocated for use as postsexual exposure prophylaxis. According to the Public Health Service and NIH,