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Test Bank For Pediatric Physical Examination An Illustrated Handbook 3rd Edition by Karen G. Duderstadt 9780323476508 Chapter 1-20 Complete Guide

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Test Bank For Pediatric Physical Examination An Illustrated Handbook 3rd Edition by Karen G. Duderstadt 6508, 3 , 6492, X 1. Approach to care and assessment of children and adolescents 2. Assessment parameters 3. Developmental surveillance and screening 4. Comprehensive information gathering 5. Environmental health history 6. Newborn assessment 7. Skin assessment 8. Heart and vascular assessment 9. Chest and respiratory assessment 10. Head and neck assessment 11. Lymphatic system assessment 12. Eyes 13. Ears 14. Nose, mouth, and throat 15. Abdomen and rectum 16. Male genitalia 17. Male and female breast 18. Female genitalia 19. Musculoskeletal assessment 20. Neurologic assessment

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,Pediatric Physical Examination 3rd Edition Duderstadt TESTBANK

Chapter 1: Approach to Care and Assessment of Children and Adolescents

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A nurse is reviewing developmental concepts for infants and children. Which statement best
describes development in infants and children?

a. Development, a predictable and orderly process, occurs at varying rates within
normal limits.

b. Development is primarily related to the growth in the number and size of cells.

c. Development occurs in a proximodistal direction with fine muscle development
occurring first.

d. Development is more easily and accurately measured than growth.


ANS: A

Development, a continuous orderly process, provides the basis for increases in the childs
function and complexity of behavior. The increases in rate of function and complexity can vary
normally within limits for each child. An increase in the number and size of cells is a definition
for growth. Development proceeds in a proximodistal direction with fine muscle organization
occurring as a result of large muscle organization. Development is a more complex process that
is affected by many factors; therefore, it is less easily and accurately measured. Growth is a
predictable process with standard measurement methods.

2. Frequent developmental assessments are important for which reason?

a. Stable developmental periods during infancy provide an opportunity to identify
any delays or deficits.

b. Infants need stimulation specific to the stage of development.

c. Critical periods of development occur during childhood.

d. Child development is unpredictable and needs monitoring.

,ANS: C

Critical periods are blocks of time during which children are ready to master specific
developmental tasks. Children can master these tasks more easily during particular periods of
time in their growth and developmental process. Infancy is a dynamic time of development that
requires frequent evaluations to assess appropriate developmental progress. Infants in a nurturing
environment will develop appropriately and will not necessarily need stimulation specific to their
developmental stage. Normal growth and development are orderly and proceed in a predictable
pattern on the basis of each individuals abilities and potentials.

3. Which factor has the greatest influence on child growth and development?

a. Culture

b. Environment

c. Genetics

d. Nutrition


ANS: C

Genetic factors (heredity) determine each individuals growth and developmental rate. Although
factors such as environment, culture, nutrition, and family can influence genetic traits, they do
not eliminate the effect of the genetic endowment, which is permanent. Culture is a significant
factor that influences how children grow toward adulthood. Culture influences both growth and
development but does not eliminate inborn genetic influences. Environment has a significant role
in determining growth and development both before and after birth. The environment can
influence how and to which extent genetic traits are manifested, but environmental factors cannot
eliminate the effect of genetics. Nutrition is critical for growth and plays a significant role
throughout childhood.

4. A nurse is planning a teaching session with a child. According to Piagetian theory, the period
of cognitive development in which the child is able to distinguish fact from fantasy is the _____
period of cognitive development.

a. sensorimotor

, b. formal operations

c. concrete operations

d. preoperational


ANS: C

Concrete operations is the period of cognitive development in which childrens thinking is shifted
from egocentric to being able to see anothers point of view. They develop the ability to
distinguish fact from fantasy. The sensorimotor stage occurs in infancy and is a period of
reflexive behavior. During this period, the infants world becomes more permanent and
organized. The stage ends with the infant demonstrating some evidence of reasoning. Formal
operations is a period in development in which new ideas are created through previous thoughts.
Analytic reason and abstract thought emerge in this period. The preoperational stage is a period
of egocentrism in which the childs judgments are illogical and dominated by magical thinking
and animism.

5. The theorist who viewed developmental progression as a lifelong series of conflicts that need
resolution is:

a. Erikson.

b. Freud.

c. Kohlberg.

d. Piaget.


ANS: A

Erik Erikson viewed development as a series of conflicts affected by social and cultural factors.
Each conflict must be resolved for the child to progress emotionally, with unsuccessful
resolution leaving the child emotionally disabled. Sigmund Freud proposed a psychosexual
theory of development in which certain parts of the body assume psychological significance as
foci of sexual energy. The foci shift as the individual moves through the different stages (oral,
anal, phallic, latency, and genital) of development. Lawrence Kohlberg described moral
development as having three levels (preconventional, conventional, and postconventional). His

,theory closely parallels Piagets. Jean Piagets cognitive theory interprets how children learn and
think and how this thinking progresses and differs from adult thinking. Stages of his theory
include sensorimotor, preoperations, concrete operations, and formal operations.

6. What does the nurse need to know when observing chronically ill children at play?

a. Play is not important to hospitalized children.

b. Children need to have structured play periods.

c. Childrens play is an indication of a childs response to treatment.

d. Play is to be discouraged because it tires hospitalized children.


ANS: C

Play for all children is an activity woven with meaning and purpose and is a mechanism for
mastering their environment. For chronically ill children, play can indicate their state of wellness
and response to treatment. Play is important to all children in all environments. Although
childrens play activities appear unorganized and at times chaotic, play has purpose and meaning.
Imposing structure on play interferes with the tasks being worked on. Children who have fewer
energy reserves still require play. For these children, less-active play activities will be important.

7. Which child is most likely to be frightened by hospitalization?

a. A 4-month-old infant admitted with a diagnosis of bronchiolitis

b. A 2-year-old toddler admitted for cystic fibrosis

c. A 9-year-old child hospitalized with a fractured femur

d. A 15-year-old adolescent admitted for abdominal pain


ANS: B

Toddlers are most likely to be frightened by hospitalization because their thought processes are
egocentric, magical, and illogical. They feel very threatened by unfamiliar people and strange
environments. Young infants are not as likely to be frightened as toddlers by hospitalization
because they are not as aware of the environment. The 9-year-old childs cognitive ability is

,sufficient enough for the child to understand the reason for the hospitalization. The 15-year-old
adolescent has the cognitive ability to interpret the reason for the hospitalization.

8. Which statement made by a 15-year-old adolescent with a diagnosis of neurofibromatosis (an
autosomal dominant genetic disorder) best demonstrates an understanding of the mechanism of
inheritance for the disease?

a. My babies will probably not have neurofibromatosis.

b. My babies have a 50% chance of having neurofibromatosis.

c. Whether my babies have problems depends on the father.

d. My babies have a 25% chance of having neurofibromatosis.


ANS: B

Neurofibromatosis is an autosomal dominant genetic disorder that occurs when the abnormal
gene is carried on the affected chromosome with a normal gene. Because the abnormal gene is
dominant, an individual with the defective gene has a 50% chance of transmitting the defect to
an infant with each pregnancy. Neurofibromatosis is not a sex-linked genetic disease; therefore,
either the father or the mother genetically transfers it to the infant. A parent with the defective
gene will genetically transfer either a normal or abnormal gene to an infant. Because the
defective gene is dominant, there is a 50% probability of the child inheriting the disease.

9. During a routine healthcare visit, a parent asks the nurse why her 9-month-old infant is not
walking as her older child did at the same age. Which response by the nurse best demonstrates an
understanding of child development?

a. Shes a little slow.

b. If she is pulling up, you can help her by holding her hand.

c. Babies progress at different rates. Your infants development is within normal
limits.

d. Maybe she needs to see a behavioral specialist.


ANS: C

,Ninety percent of infants walk by 14 months of age. The infant is within normal developmental
limits. It is inappropriate for the nurse to state that the infant is a little slow. Infants will walk
when they are developmentally ready. Hurrying an infant does not result in the developmental
task being achieved at an earlier time period. Consulting a behavioral specialist for diagnostic
evaluation is indicated when a child demonstrates developmental delays. The child has no
evidence of a delay.

10. Which expected outcome would be developmentally appropriate for a hospitalized 4-year-old
child?

a. The child will be dressed and fed by the parents.

b. The child will independently ask for play materials or other personal needs.

c. The child will be able to verbalize an understanding of the reason for the
hospitalization.

d. The child will have a parent stay in the room at all times.


ANS: B

Erikson identifies initiative as a developmental task for the preschool child. Initiating play
activities and asking for play materials or assistance with personal needs demonstrate
developmental appropriateness. Parents need to foster appropriate developmental behavior in the
4-year-old child. Dressing and feeding the child do not encourage independent behavior. A 4-
year-old child cannot be expected to cognitively understand the reason for his or her
hospitalization. Expecting the child to verbalize an understanding for the hospitalization is an
inappropriate outcome. Parents staying with the child throughout a hospitalization is an
inappropriate outcome. Although children benefit from parental involvement, parents may not
have the support structure to stay in the room with the child at all times.

11. A nurse has completed a teaching session with parents of preschool aged children. Which
statement made by the parent identifies an appropriate level of language development for a 4-
year-old child?

a. The child has a vocabulary of 300 words and uses simple sentences.

b. The child uses correct grammar in sentences.

, c. The child is able to pronounce consonants clearly.

d. The child uses language to express abstract thought.


ANS: B

The 4-year-old child is able to use correct grammar in sentence structure and typically has
difficulty in pronouncing consonants. Simple sentences and a 300-word vocabulary are
appropriate for a 2-year-old child. The use of language to express abstract thought is
developmentally appropriate for the adolescent.

12. Which should the nurse evaluate before administering the Denver Developmental Screening
Test II (DDST-II)?

a. The childs height and weight

b. The parents ability to comprehend the results

c. The childs mood

d. The parentchild interaction


ANS: C

The results of the screening test are valid if the child acted in a normal and expected manner. The
childs height and weight are not relevant to the DDST-II screening process. The parents ability to
understand the results of the screening is not relevant to the validity of the test. The parentchild
interaction is not significantly relevant to the test results.

13. Which children are at greater risk for not receiving immunizations?

a. Children who attend licensed day care programs

b. Children entering school

c. Children who are home schooled

d. Young adults entering college


ANS: C

,Home schooled children are at risk for being underimmunized and need to be monitored. All
states require immunizations for children in day care programs and entering school. Most
colleges require a record of immunizations as part of a health history.

14. Which developmental assessment instrument is appropriate to assess a 5-year-old child?

a. Brazelton Behavioral Scale

b. Denver Developmental Screening Test II (DDST-II)

c. Dubowitz Scale

d. New Ballard Scale


ANS: B

The DDST-II is used for infants and children between birth and 6 years of age. Brazeltons
Behavioral Scale is used for newborn assessment. The Dubowitz Scale is used for estimation of
gestational age. The New Ballard Scale is used for newborn screening.

15. A 2-month-old child has not received any immunizations. Which immunizations should the
nurse give?

a. DTaP, Hib, HepB, IPV, varicella

b. DTaP, Hib, HepB, MMR, IPV

c. DTaP, Hib, HepB, PCV, IPV, rotavirus

d. DTaP, Hib, HepB, PCV, IPV, HepA


ANS: C

DTaP, Hib, HepB, PCV, IPV, and rotavirus are appropriate immunizations for an unimmunized
2-month-old child. The child should not receive varicella until at or after 12 months of age.
MMR is not given to children until at or after 12 months of age. HepA is recommended for all
children at 1 year of age.

16. You are preparing immunizations for a 12-month-old child who is immunocompromised.
Which immunization cannot be given?

, a. DTaP

b. HepA

c. IPV

d. Varicella


ANS: D

Children who are immunologically compromised should not receive live viral vaccines. Varicella
is a live vaccine, and should not be given except in special circumstances. DTaP, HepA, and IPV
can be safely given.

17. Which immunization can cause fever and rash to occur 1 to 2 weeks after administration?

a. HepB

b. DTaP

c. Hib

d. MMR


ANS: D

MMR is a live virus vaccine and can cause fever and rash 1 to 2 weeks after administration.
HepB, DTaP, and Hib do not cause fever or rash.

18. A nurse is teaching an adolescent about Tanner stages. Which statement best describes
Tanner staging?

a. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on chronological age

b. Staging of puberty based on the initiation of menarche and nocturnal emissions

c. Predictable stages of puberty that are based on primary and secondary sexual
characteristics

d. Staging of puberty based on the initiation of primary sexual characteristics


ANS: C
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