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TEST BANK FOR MODERN BLOOD BANKING & TRANSFUSION PRACTICES 6TH EDITION UPDATE BY DENISE M. HARMENING.pdf

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The Test Bank for Modern Blood Banking & Transfusion Practices, 6th Edition by Denise M. Harmening is an essential resource for students and professionals studying blood banking and transfusion medicine. This test bank provides a comprehensive collection of practice questions that align with the latest edition of the textbook. It covers all the major concepts in modern blood banking and transfusion practices, offering detailed explanations and rationales to help students understand complex topics in this field. Key Features of the Test Bank Comprehensive Coverage of Blood Banking and Transfusion Medicine: The test bank is organized to align with the chapters of the 6th edition of Modern Blood Banking & Transfusion Practices, ensuring full coverage of all relevant topics: Blood Donation and Collection: Questions on donor selection, blood donation processes, and blood collection techniques. Blood Components and Products: Includes details on the preparation, storage, and use of various blood products like red blood cells, platelets, plasma, and cryoprecipitate. Blood Typing and Crossmatching: Covers ABO and Rh blood group systems, compatibility testing, and crossmatching procedures. Immunohematology: Focuses on the study of antibodies and antigens, including techniques for identifying and characterizing blood group antibodies. Transfusion Reactions: Examines the types of transfusion reactions, their causes, symptoms, and management. Hemostasis and Coagulation: Tests knowledge on blood clotting mechanisms, clotting factors, and diagnostic tests for coagulation disorders. Quality Control and Safety in Blood Banking: Addresses the procedures and regulations involved in maintaining blood bank safety and quality. Clinical Transfusion Medicine: Covers therapeutic transfusion practices, including the management of various blood disorders and patient care during transfusions. Variety of Question Formats: The test bank includes a wide variety of question types, offering students multiple ways to test their knowledge: Multiple-Choice Questions (MCQs): These questions cover key topics and test comprehension of blood banking procedures, rules, and clinical practices. True/False Questions: Used to test factual knowledge, such as blood group compatibilities or transfusion regulations. Matching Questions: Useful for matching blood types with compatible donors or associating transfusion reactions with their clinical signs. Fill-in-the-Blank: Tests recall of specific terms, definitions, and processes related to blood banking. Case Studies/Scenario-Based Questions: Provide real-world situations in which students can apply their knowledge to solve problems related to blood transfusions and reactions. Detailed Answer Key with Rationales: The test bank includes a comprehensive answer key for each question, with detailed rationales for why the correct answer is right and why other options are incorrect. The rationales help reinforce understanding, clarifying difficult concepts in blood banking and transfusion practices. Clinical Relevance: The test bank emphasizes the practical application of blood banking knowledge, with questions that focus on real-life clinical scenarios. Students will be tested on how to handle specific transfusion-related situations, such as managing transfusion reactions, selecting blood components for various clinical conditions, and adhering to safety protocols. Updated Information: The 6th edition of Modern Blood Banking & Transfusion Practices has been updated to include the most current research, techniques, and safety protocols in the field of blood banking. The test bank reflects these updates, ensuring that students are learning the latest practices in transfusion medicine. Sample Practice Questions from the Test Bank Question 1: Blood Donation Which of the following is a standard criterion for donor eligibility for whole blood donation? A) Age between 18 and 65 years B) Body weight less than 120 pounds C) Hemoglobin level of at least 12.5 g/dL D) No history of hypertension Answer: C) Hemoglobin level of at least 12.5 g/dL Rationale: One of the key criteria for donor eligibility is a hemoglobin level of at least 12.5 g/dL, ensuring that the donor has sufficient blood volume for the donation and does not face adverse effects. Question 2: Blood Typing Which of the following blood types is considered the universal plasma donor? A) A B) AB C) O D) O negative Answer: B) AB Rationale: Blood type AB is considered the universal plasma donor because individuals with AB blood can donate plasma to any blood type without causing a transfusion reaction. Question 3: Transfusion Reactions A patient experiences chills, fever, and a rash after receiving a blood transfusion. What is the most likely cause of this reaction? A) Hemolytic transfusion reaction B) Allergic transfusion reaction C) Bacterial contamination D) Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction Answer: D) Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction Rationale: A febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction is the most common type of reaction and is often caused by the presence of white blood cell antibodies. Symptoms include fever, chills, and occasionally a rash. Question 4: Blood Products Which of the following blood products is most appropriate for a patient with severe thrombocytopenia? A) Whole blood B) Fresh frozen plasma C) Platelet concentrate D) Cryoprecipitate Answer: C) Platelet concentrate Rationale: Platelet concentrate is used to treat thrombocytopenia, a condition characterized by low platelet levels. Platelets are necessary for blood clotting and to prevent bleeding in these patients. Question 5: Immunohematology What is the most common cause of a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT)? A) Transfusion reaction B) Autoimmune hemolytic anemia C) Hemolytic disease of the newborn D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above Rationale: A positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) can be caused by various conditions where antibodies are present on the surface of red blood cells, such as in autoimmune hemolytic anemia, hemolytic disease of the newborn, and transfusion reactions. Why Use This Test Bank? Comprehensive Learning: This test bank provides complete coverage of the major topics in blood banking and transfusion medicine, reinforcing what students learn from the textbook and offering additional practice. Exam and Clinical Preparation: With a variety of question types and clinically relevant scenarios, this test bank helps students prepare for exams and practical situations in blood banking and transfusion practices. Detailed Rationales: The rationales provided for each answer help students understand the underlying principles and reasoning, enhancing learning and retention. Current and Accurate: The updated content in the test bank reflects the latest advancements in the field of blood banking, ensuring students are learning the most current standards and practices. Conclusion The Test Bank for Modern Blood Banking & Transfusion Practices, 6th Edition by Denise M. Harmening is a vital resource for students in blood banking, transfusion medicine, and related healthcare fields. With its comprehensive coverage of essential topics, variety of question formats, and detailed rationales, this test bank prepares students for both their exams and clinical practice, helping them develop the expertise required to manage blood transfusions and related challenges effectively.

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Subido en
13 de octubre de 2022
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208
Escrito en
2024/2025
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TEST BANK FOR MODERN BLOOD BANKING
& TRANSFUSION PRACTICES
6TH EDITION
DENISE M. HARMENING

, Chapter 1 RBCs and Platelet Preservation: Historical Perspectives and Current Trends

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which metabolic pathway is responsible for generating 90% of the ATP for the RBC?
a. Pentose phosphate shunt c. Glycolysis
b. Luebering-Rapoport shunt d. Methemoglobin reductase

____ 2. A unit of blood was returned to the blood bank before it was spiked. Apparently the patient’s IV failed. The
unit of blood was outside the blood bank for 35 minutes. Which of the statements below is most accurate?
a. The unit of blood should be discarded immediately.
b. The unit of blood can be returned to inventory.
c. The unit of blood must be transfused within 4 hours or be discarded at the end of that time.
d. The unit of blood must be transfused with 24 hours.

____ 3. What is the average diameter of a platelet?




m
er as
a. 5 to 10 µm c. 1 to 2 µm
b. 2 to 4 µm d. 4 to 6 µm




co
eH w
____ 4. In the normal hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve, what percentage of oxygen is released to the tissues




o.
when PO2 averages 40 mm Hg?
a. 75%
rs e c. 100%
ou urc
b. 25% d. 50%

____ 5. What factors are known to influence platelet metabolism and function?
a. Storage temperature c. Platelet count
o

b. Initial pH d. All of the above
aC s
vi y re


____ 6. Which of the following red blood cell morphologies may be present on the peripheral blood smear as a result
of loss of RBC membrane?
a. Spherocytes c. Burr cells
b. Target cells d. Schistocytes
ed d




____ 7. What does the term autologous transfusion refer to?
ar stu




a. A parent donating blood for his or her child
b. An individual donating blood for a friend
c. An individual donating blood for a relative
is




d. An individual donating blood for his or her own transfusion
Th




____ 8. What is the primary function of hemoglobin?
a. Iron metabolism c. Oxygen transport
b. Porphyrin synthesis d. Signal transduction
sh




____ 9. All of the following areas of red blood cell biology are crucial for normal erythrocyte survival except:
a. Cellular metabolism. c. Site of the ABO antigen attachment.
b. RBC membrane. d. Hemoglobin structure.




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, ____ 10. What is the correct biochemical composition of the RBC membrane?
a. 52% protein, 40% lipid, 8% carbohydrate
b. 40% protein, 8% lipid, 52% carbohydrate
c. 8% protein, 52% lipid, 40% carbohydrate
d. 8% lipid, 40% carbohydrate, 52% protein

____ 11. All of the following biochemical changes are associated with loss of red blood cell viability upon storage
except:
a. Decreased pH. c. Increased ATP level.
b. Loss of red blood cell function. d. Decreased glucose consumption.

____ 12. Which red blood cell preservative has a storage time of 35 days?
a. ACD c. AS-1
b. CPDA-1 d. CPD

____ 13. The RBC membrane is relatively permeable to all of the following except:




m
er as
a. Chloride. c. Bicarbonate.
b. Sodium. d. Water.




co
eH w
____ 14. What percentage of platelets is sequestered in the spleen as functional reserve after being released from the




o.
bone marrow?
a. 30%
rs e c. 10%
ou urc
b. 50% d. 25%

____ 15. What is the major biochemical consideration in platelet storage?
a. Glucose metabolism c. Production of carbon dioxide
o

b. Oxygen supply d. Regulation of pH
aC s


____ 16. What would the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve depict in a patient exhibiting clinical signs of
vi y re



alkalosis?
a. Normal c. Shift to the right
b. Shift to the left d. None of the above
ed d




____ 17. Name the main lipid components of a red blood cell membrane.
ar stu




a. Phospholipid c. Glycolipid
b. Sphingomyelin d. Glycophorin A

____ 18. The ABO blood groups were discovered in 1901 by whom?
is




a. Charles Drew c. Loutit and Mollison
Th




b. Karl Landsteiner d. Edward Lindeman

____ 19. A standing order of platelets was shipped to your facility by your supplier. It was inadvertently left in the
corner of the department until discovered 36 hours later. What would the appropriate action be for the blood
sh




banker?
a. If the temperature in the box was 22 +/- 2°C and the platelet swirl seemed OK, it would be
OK to accept the unit into inventory.
b. The platelets have fallen outside the supplier’s quality assurance. The unit should be
discarded because the pH has probably dropped too low and platelet activation has been
compromised.
c. If the temperature was 1°C to 6°C and the platelet swirl seemed OK, it would be OK to


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, accept the unit into inventory.
d. If the platelets appeared OK and passed the platelet swirl test after being placed on the
agitator, they could be accepted into the inventory.
____ 20. Which metabolic pathway permits the accumulation of 2,3 diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG)?
a. Glycolysis c. Pentose phosphate shunt
b. Luebering-Rapoport shunt d. Methemoglobin reductase

____ 21. All of the following are consistent with a "shift to the right" of the hemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve
except:
a. Increased 2,3-DPG.
b. 50% O2 saturation to tissues.
c. Decreased 2,3-DPG.
d. Decreased hemoglobin affinity for O2.

____ 22. What is the normal platelet count range per cubic millimeter?
a. 100 to 350 c. 50,000 to 200,000
b. 150,000 to 350,000 d. 350,000 to 500,000




m
er as
____ 23. What cryoprotective agent is added to red blood cells upon freezing?




co
a. Dextrose c. Glycerol




eH w
b. Adsol d. All of the above




o.
a. 1°C to 6°C rs e
____ 24. If platelets are to be stored for 5 days on a rotator, what is the optimal storage temperature?
c. 35°C to 37°C
ou urc
b. 20°C to 24°C d. 1°C to 10°C

____ 25. What role do platelets play in hemostasis?
o

a. Maintenance of vascular integrity
aC s


b. Initial arrest of bleeding by platelet plug formation
vi y re


c. Stabilization of the hemostatic plug
d. All of the above

____ 26. Which of the following best describes "integral" membrane proteins?
a. Reside at the cytoplasmic surface of membrane
ed d




b. Span the entire membrane surface
ar stu




c. Form the red blood cell cytoskeleton
d. None of the above

____ 27. How is stroma-free hemoglobin solution prepared?
is




a. Outdated red blood cells are concentrated, and stroma is removed.
b. Outdated red blood cells are diluted with saline, and stroma is removed.
Th




c. Outdated red blood cells are lysed, and stroma is removed.
d. None of the above

____ 28. What is the normal life span of an RBC?
sh




a. 100 days c. 120 hours
b. 120 days d. 2 days

____ 29. Regarding loss of RBC membrane deformability, all of the following are true except:
a. Increase in ATP level.
b. Decrease in ATP level.



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