HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide 2022 LATEST UPDATE

HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide 2022 LATEST UPDATE HIT 220 Final Exam Study Guide 2022 LATEST UPDATE 1. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes activation of the EMS system and provides immediate care for life-threatening problems? a. Emergency Medical Dispatcher b. Cardiac Care responder c. EMT d. Emergency Medical Responder 2. Which of the following is a personality trait required of EMTs? a. Ability to lift and carry 125 pounds b. Awareness of problems with color vision c. Ability to dominate the patient d. Control of personal habits 3. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the development of emergency medical service standards? a. U.S. Department of Transportation b. U.S. Department of the Interior c. U.S. Department of Health Services d. U.S. Department of Homeland Security 4. Who is responsible for on-scene safety of EMS providers? a. Traffic director b. Law enforcement c. All crew members d. Triage officer 5. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT? a. Protect and stabilize the patient b. Communicate with other responders on the scene c. Maintain personal health and safety d. Provide emergency care 6. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following? a. Transfer of care b. Breach of duty c. Definitive care d. End of tour 7. What BEST describes the level of EMS training that emphasizes use of advanced airway devices and some prehospital medication administration? a. Advanced EMT b. Paramedic c. Emergency Medical Responder d. EMT 8. Centralized coordination or emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers to which of the following? a. Emergency preparedness plan b. Trauma system c. Resource management d. Central management 9. Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT’s original training and that is usually taken in regular intervals? a. Distance education b. EMT training program c. Recertification d. Continuing education 10. Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate? a. Self-starter b. Strong student c. Strong communication d. Good eyesight 11. Which of the following BEST describes a communication system capable of identifying the number and location of the phone from which a caller is calling? a. Data display 911 b. Priority dispatch 911 c. Enhanced 911 d. Advanced 911 12. What BEST defines the evaluation of the patient’s condition in order to provide emergency care? a. Patient access b. Patient assessment c. Medical intervention d. Patient advocacy 13. Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT? a. Nonjudgmental and fair b. Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds c. Ability to speak clearly d. Ability to remain calm in stressful situations 14. What has the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system been developed to provide? a. Prehospital care b. Prompt emergency response c. Safe emergency transportation d. Trained medical personnel 15. Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who need emergency medical assistance? a. Emergency department b. Emergency medical services system c. Surgical services department d. Emergency medical dispatch center 16. Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and supports his cause? a. Guardian b. Assistant c. Advocate d. Representative 17. To be compassionate and empathetic, to be accurate with interviews, and to inspire confidence are all examples of which of the personal traits of a quality EMT? a. Able to listen to others b. Pleasant c. Judgmental but fair d. Emotionally stable 18. Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency medical service? a. The Spanish b. The Egyptians c. The Mayans d. The French 19. What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel responsible for direct patient care? a. Emergency Medical Technician b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Advanced EMT d. Emergency Ambulance Driver 20. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical services (EMS) system? a. To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during transport and at the hospital b. To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the scene c. To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their raining and “do not harm,” while providing prompt transport to the hospital d. To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care 21. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the effectiveness of an EMS system? a. Quality improvement b. System effectiveness management c. Process improvement plan d. Total quality system 22. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment programs? a. Department of Health and Human Services (HHS) b. National Transportation Safety Board (NTSD) c. National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) d. United States Health Services Agency (HAS) 23. During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best answer? a. The state requires the training b. EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam c. It looks good to a jury should the service be sued d. EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research 24. Which of the following is a component of patient advocacy? a. Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury b. Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities c. Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital d. Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath 25. What level of emergency medical training provides the most advanced pre-hospital care? a. Advanced EMT b. Emergency Medical Responder c. Emergency Medical Technician d. Paramedic 26. Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis? a. Current and former smokers b. Immunosuppressed patients c. Uranium mine workers d. Healthcare practitioners 27. You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms? a. Hepatitis B b. Pneumonia c. AIDS d. Tuberculosis 28. Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT’s health and well-being? a. Megastress b. Hyperstress c. Distress d. Eustress 29. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding tuberculosis (TB)? a. The incubation period of TB is from 1 to 7 days b. TB is not spread through surface contamination c. The TB pathogen only affects lung tissue d. A tuberculin skin test can detect TB exposure 30. You respond to a laceration call. When you arrive on-scene, you walk into the house and find a person suffering from a severe wrist laceration from a broken window. Without thinking, you immediately grab the wrist and apply direct pressure to the wound. You then realize that, in your hurry to save a life, you forgot to put on your gloves. You look down to see your hand is covered in blood. When practical, you immediately wash your hands thoroughly. What is your next best action? a. Report the exposure incident because it is the law and you could be fined a large sum of money for failing to report the exposure. b. Report the exposure so you can protect yourself from any accidental infection. c. Report the exposure. Failure to report the exposure may result in you not receiving financial compensation for a potential line-of-duty injury d. If your hand had no open wounds, it is not required to report the exposure as there is no risk of infection, and you could get in trouble at work for failure to follow policy. 31. What is the name of the federal act that mandates a procedure by which emergency healthcare providers can find out if they have been exposed to potentially life-threatening diseases while on the job? a. Communicable Disease Notification Act b. EMS Personnel Health Protection Act of 1991 c. Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Act d. Ryan White CARE Act 32. During which of these situations would the EMT be least likely to experience a body substance exposure? a. Bandage a laceration b. Childbirth c. Splinting a sprained ankle d. Glucometry 33. What is a common term used to describe the items needed for standard precautions or body substance isolation precautious? a. Harm-reduction strategy b. Exposure-control equipment c. Personnel protective equipment d. Infection-control plan 34. The CDC recommends using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer in all except which of the following situations(s)? a. The patient has a bloodborne communicable disease b. The patient has a respiratory illness c. The provider is not vaccinated against hepatitis B d. The provider’s hands come into contact with fecal matter. 35. Due to the high risk of an unstable work environment, EMTs responding to a motor vehicle crash may consider using in addition to standard PPE. a. N-95 masks b. Heavy-duty gloves c. Face shields d. Level B hazmat suits 36. Which of the following terms is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus?” a. Homeostat b. Distress c. Stress d. Eustress 37. What are the minimum Standard Precautions an EMT should take when transporting a patient infected with Middle East Respiratory Syndrome (MERS)? a. Gloves, N-95 mask, and goggles b. Gloves c. Gloves and N-95 mask d. Gloves, N-95 mask, goggles, and gown 38. What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis A? a. Respiratory droplet b. Unproteced sex c. Fecal-oral d. Bloodborne 39. Which of the following pathogens can live in dried blood for days and should be a major concern for EMS providers even while cleaning contaminated equipment? a. Tuberculosis b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis A d. AIDS 40. Which of the following statements about HIV/AIDS is true? a. HIV positive needlesticks have a 30 percent infection rate b. The HIV virus lives longer outside the body than Hepatitis B c. HIV positive needlesticks have less than a 0.05 percent infection rate d. Drugs are not available that slow HIV from progressing into AIDS 41. You are called to an assault on a homeless male. Dried blood from the trauma is visible around the patient’s mouth and nose. During the assessment you note the patient has a productive cough. The patient says, “Don’t worry, I’m not contagious. I’ve had this cough for a year.” Describe the best approach regarding respiratory isolation. a. Isolate the patient with a nonrebreather mask b. Mask yourself and the patient c. Mask yourself only d. Use gloves for PPE, as that is all needed 42. Which of the following descriptions BEST defines the term pathogen? a. An immunity developed after an exposure b. A study of the origins of infection and disease c. A medication with a harmful effect d. An organism that causes infection and disease 43. Which of the following is true regarding proper hand cleaning? a. Soap and water should be used following any patient contact if the EMT does not wear gloves b. If the EMT’s hands are visibly dirty, an alcohol-based hand cleaner is not sufficient. c. In cases where soap and water and alcohol-based hand cleaners are not immediately available, bleach wipes should be used. d. Following patient contact, the EMT should soak his hands in warm soapy water for at least 30 seconds and then shake them vigorously. 44. When the potential exists for exposure to exhaled air of a person with suspected or confirmed TB, a(n), mask should be worn by the EMT. a. Surgical b. B-50 c. Nonrebreather d. N-95 45. An EMT should considered wearing protective eyewear when caring for which of these patients? a. A patient with a difficult-to-visualize scalp laceration b. A trauma patient who is covered in dirt, rocks, and other foreign debris c. A patient who is actively coughing d. A patient who was spraying with mace by police during arrest 46. What would be the primary reason for an EMT to change gloves between contact with different patients? a. To protect the EMT from becoming infected b. To minimize the amount of time the EMT’s hands are spent in gloves c. To ensure soiled gloves are changed as soon as possible d. To prevent spreading infection to the next patient 47. All of the following are ways that an EMT can increase both physical and mental well-being, except: a. Drinking caffeine instead of alcohol b. Following a regular walking regimen c. Spending more time relaxing with friends and family d. Eating more carbohydrates 48. Healthcare employers are required by law to provide a hepatitis B available to employees free of charge. a. Prophylaxis b. Vaccine c. Cure d. Immunity 49. When covering a patient’s mouth and nose with a mask of any kind, which of the following is the primary risk? a. Causing or exasperating respiratory illnesses b. Interfering with patient communication c. Upsetting the patient because of the social stigma d. Obstructing the ability to visualize and protect the airway 50. The tuberculin skin test (TST), formerly known as the purified protein derivative (PPD) test, is used to: a. Determine if a person has infected others with TB b. Detect a person’s exposure to tuberculosis c. Inculcate healthcare workers against TB infections d. Prevent tuberculosis from spreading following an exposure 51. Which of the following best describes body mechanisms? a. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety b. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects c. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user’s body d. Both B and C 52. What should you NOT do when using a stair chair? a. Lean forward from the hips b. Keep your back straight c. Lean forward from the wrist d. Flex your knees 53. You have responded to a nursing home and find an elderly patient in his bed in cardiac arrest. Which type of move would you perform to get the patient to a hard surface so you can perform chest compression? a. Non-urgent move b. Clothing drag c. Urgent move d. Emergency move 54. Which of the following statements regarding body mechanics is true? a. Use your back to lift b. Use your legs to lift c. Twist your torso while lifting d. Position your feet close together 55. You have responded to a multiple casualty incident involving an overturned bus. Patients have been thrown around the interior of the bus and several are piled on top of each other. What type of move would you perform to gain access to the most critically injured patients? a. Non-urgent move b. Extremity lift c. Urgent move d. Emergency move 56. You respond to a call at a park where you find a 550-pound patient who has fallen down a slope near a creek. As you and your partner discuss the situation, you decide to call a second unit for lifting assistance. Once the patient is on a stretcher, how would the additional two personnel help in this lift? a. You place one person on each corner of the stretcher to balance the weight and share in the lifting b. They would position themselves half-way up the slope to take over when you and your partner get fatigued c. You will place two persons at the foot, one at the head, and the other to act as a safety anchor with a rope d. You will place two persons at the head of the stretcher, one at the foot, and one to act as a spotter 57. What is the preferred number of rescuers when using a stair chair? a. Two: one in front and one in back b. Only one with the track-like chair c. Four: one for each corner of the device d. Three: two lifting and one spotting 58. Which of the following best describes an urgent? a. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board b. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt c. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher d. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot 59. When placing all fingers and the palm in contact with the object being lifted, you are using which of the following? a. Lock grip b. Power lift c. Power grip d. Vise grip 60. Which of the following patients should NOT be transported in a stair chair? a. Patient with difficulty breathing b. Patient who is nauseated c. Patient with a suspected spinal injury d. Patient found lying in bed 61. How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip? a. 24 inches b. 10 inches c. 6 inches d. 15 inches 62. Which of the following should you do when reaching for something? a. Keep your back in a locked-in position b. Avoid twisting c. Avoid reaching more than 20 inches in front of your body. d. All are correct 63. What is the main benefit of using a stair chair with a track-like system over a traditional stair chair? a. A stair chair with a track-like system can be manipulated to lift into an ambulance using a hydraulic system. b. A stair chair with a track-like system prevents the patient from having to be lifted downstairs c. There is no benefit of a track-like stair chair over a traditional stair chair d. Only one EMT is required to operate a stair chair with a track-like system. 64. Which of the methods listed below is best described as moving a patient from the floor to a stretcher by having two or more rescuers knee, curl the patient to their chest, stand, and then reverse the process to place the patient on the stretcher? a. Direct carry b. Direct ground lift c. Power lift d. Draw-sheet method 65. Which of the following devices is best suited for maneuvering a patient through a narrow hallway? a. Long backboard b. Flexible stretcher c. Wheeled stretcher d. Basket stretcher 66. Which of the following is NOT correct when performing a log roll? a. Keep your back straight b. Lean forward from the hips c. Use your shoulder muscles d. Place both feet flat on the ground 67. If the weight being pulled is below the level of the EMT’s waist, he should be in a(n) position. a. Squatting b. Kneeling c. Feet-together d. Overhead 68. Which of the following factors should be considered before lifting any patient? a. The weight of the patient b. Your physical limitations c. Communications d. All are correct 69. When lifting a patient, a basic principle is to: a. Lift with your lower back b. Extend your arms to maximize your lift c. Rush your lift to minimize tour lift time d. Know your lifting limits. 70. When a stretcher with a patient secures to it is elevated, what occurs? a. The patient feels more comfortable being at near normal height b. The center of gravity is raised, and this causes a tip hazard c. The stretcher is more stable and easily pushed d. The EMTs lessen the possibility of injury from being bent over the patient 71. Where should you position the weight of the object being lifted? a. As far from the body as possible b. An arm’s length away from the body c. To one side or the other d. As close to the body as possible 72. While of the following is the correct position of an EMT’s feet when lifting? a. Shoulder-width apart b. As close together as possible c. As wide apart as possible d. Two feet apart 73. Which of the following devices should be used to carry a patient down the stairs whenever possible? a. Stair chair b. Scoop stretcher c. Basket stretcher d. Wheeled ambulance stretcher 74. The term body mechanics describes the proper use of your body to lift without injury. What are the three considerations to review before any lift? a. Equipment, patient injury, and communication b. The object, patient injury, and communication c. The object, your limitations, and communications d. Environment, physical limitations, and communication 75. Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position? a. Power grip b. Power lift c. Weight-lifter technique d. Direct carry 76. Sharing information about a patient’s medical history with your neighbor after you hear a call on a radio scanner would constitute which of the following? a. Slander b. Violating of patient privacy c. Breach of confidentiality d. Libel 77. You are providing care to a 54-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. The patient asks to speak to you privately. He tells you he is taking Cialis for erectile dysfunction and his wife does not know he is taking it. He does not want his wife to find out. As you are putting the EMS bags back in the ambulance, the wife corners you and insists that you tell her what her husband said. What should you do? a. You should tell her. As his spouse she is legally entitled to know his medical information b. You should not tell her, there is no reason to humiliate your patient by disclosing his embarrassing condition. c. You should tell her. He may be having an affair without her knowledge and she needs to be tested for sexually transmitted diseases. d. You should not tell her. By law, your conversion with your patient is confidential 78. You are on the scene with a 72-year-old make patient with chest pain. The patient is complaining of shortness of breath but also refuses to go to the hospital, even after multiple attempts urging him to go. Which of the following should you do next? a. Stay with the patient until he loses consciousness b. Fully inform the patient about his situation and the implications of refusing care c. Inform the patient that he is having a “heart attack” and must be taken to the hospital for evaluation. d. Contact medical direction for orders to restrain the patient. 79. Which of the following is NOT required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT? a. The EMT has a duty to act. b. Proximate causation existed c. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care d. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident. 80. If the EMT is in doubtas to whether a patient in cardiac arrest should be resuscitated, which of the following is the best decision? a. Have the patient’s family put their wishes in writing b. Withhold resuscitative measures c. Consult with the patient’s physician d. Begin resuscitative measures 81. The EMT’s obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following? a. Legal responsibility b. Scope of practice c. Duty to act d. Standard of care 82. Which of the following situations BEST illustrates the act of abandonment by the EMT? a. The EMT resuscitates a patient who has a DNR order signed by his physician b. An EMT transport a patient to the emergency department, leaves the patient in the waiting room, but does not advise the ED staff c. An EMT begins care of a patient, then turns the patient over to a paramedic d. An EMT who is off-duty sees a motor vehicle collision with probable injuries but does not stop to help. 83. You arrive on the scene of a 55-year-old male patient. The patient's wife called 911 because he is having chest pains. The patient is very angry with his wife for calling 911 because he states he only has heartburn and adamantly refuses any treatment or transport. After signing the patient refusal form, the patient collapses and goes into sudden cardiac arrest. The wife is crying uncontrollably and begging you to do something. What should you do? a. Respect his legal right to not have any treatment, regardless of how much the wife begs you to help b. Explain to the wife that her husband signed a legal document refusing care, and if you intervened to help him now, you would be breaking the law. c. Provide emergency care for the patient only if his wife signs a document stating they will not sue the EMS service. d. Provide emergency care under implied consent. 84. You respond to a middle school for a 12-year-old male patient who has been hit by a car. You get consent to treat the patient from the school principal. What concept allows the principal to speak for the parents? a. In loco parentis b. Informed consent c. Res ipsa loquitur d. Healthcare proxy 85. In which of the following situations should an EMT withhold resuscitative measures from a patient in cardiac arrest? a. The patient's caregiver presents a DNR order signed by the patient and his physician. b. The EMT's religious beliefs permit withholding resuscitation, and the caregiver presents documentation of the patient's wishes. c. Family members request that nothing be done. d. All are correct 86. The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization is part of which of the following for the EMT? a. Duty to act b. Standard of care c. Scope of practice d. None are correct 87. Which of the following information may be important to law enforcement officers investigating a crime scene? a. What route you took when responding to the scene b. How you gained access to the scene c. Your opinion of what happened before you arrived on-scene d. Your experience as an EMT 88. Your patient is a 40-year-old known diabetic who was found unconscious at work by a coworker. What type of consent allows you to treat this patient? a. Consent for treatment of minor emergencies b. Consent for mentally incompetent adults c. Expressed consent d. Implied consent 89. An off-duty EMT is driving down the road when she sees a major vehicle accident. There are no Emergency Medical Responders on the scene yet. There are only Good Samaritans. The EMT is late for a doctor's appointment so she decides that she will not stop and help. The driver of the vehicle dies before help arrives. One of the Good Samaritans notices her EMT license plates and writes them down as she passes by. The Good Samaritan is angry that the EMT did not stop and help and tries to get the EMT fired for not helping. Which of the following statements is true? a. The EMT is negligent for not stopping and helping. b. The EMT is negligent because the patient died. c. The EMT is not negligent because she had a doctor's appointment. d. The EMT is not negligent because she did not have a duty to act 90. Which of the following requires training, policies, and procedures related to storing, accessing, and sharing patient information? a. HIPAA b. HIAPA c. EMTALA d. COBRA 91. Which type of consent must be used by the EMT when seeking to treat a mentally competent adult? a. Unconditional consent b. Expressed consent c. Conscious consent d. Implied consent 92. While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following? a. Libel b. Slander c. Degradation of character d. HIPAA violation 93. Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected and limitations placed on the EMT? a. Scope of practice b. Legal standards of practice c. Protocols and standing orders d. Professional standards 94. Your patient is a 45-year-old man who is suffering from chest pain. Upon arrival, the patient is pale, sweaty, and seems short of breath. The patient is angry with his daughter for calling 911. He says that he had some spicy sausage for breakfast and has indigestion. Which of the following is an appropriate means of getting the patient the care he needs? a. Try to find out why the patient does not want to go to the hospital. b. Call the patient's neighbors and tell them that you have been called to the patient's house but he is now refusing care. c. Inform the patient that if he does not agree to treatment, you will have to take him against his will because he has a potentially life-threatening problem. d. Tell the patient that his chest pain is most likely caused by his diet, have him take an antacid, and go to bed. 95. You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following? a. Medical identification device b. Driver's license c. Medical history identifier d. On-call Medical Director 96. Which of the following refers to the care that would be expected to be provided by an EMT with similar training when caring for a patient in a similar situation? a. Scope of practice b. Standard of care c. Protocols and standing orders d. Professional standards 97. Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend's house. Which of the following is the BEST way to obtain consent for treatment? a. Act on implied consent. b. Get consent from the patient's 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene. c. Call the patient's mother at work. d. Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor. 98. In which of the following situations is it legal to share information about treatment you provided to a patient? a. The triage nurse at the emergency department asks about the care you provided to the patient. b. The patient gives verbal consent to release information to a friend. c. The patient's lawyer requests the information over the phone. d. You are asked by a coworker who knows the patient. 99. Which of the following statements is true concerning protection by Good Samaritan laws? a. A Good Samaritan law allows an EMT to exceed the scope of practice, if necessary, when providing emergency care off-duty b. An EMT is expected to act as a lay person when providing emergency care off-duty. c. The purpose of Good Samaritan laws is to protect people who are trying to help in an emergency. d. An EMT cannot be sued for negligence if the state in which he works has a Good Samaritan law. 100. Two EMTs respond to the scene of a syncopal episode. They evaluate a 50-year-old male patient who passed out and cut his upper lip. The EMTs examine the patient and his vital signs are normal. The EMTs talk the patient out of an expensive ambulance ride and suggest he will save money by driving himself to the urgent care clinic for stitches for his lip rather than waiting all night in the emergency department as a nonemergency patient. The patient signs the EMS refusal form. The patient decides to see his own doctor the next morning but dies at his house from sudden cardiac arrest an hour later. Which of the following statements is true? a. The EMTs are not negligent because the patient signed the refusal form. b. The EMTs are negligent because the patient died. c. The EMTs are negligent because there was proximate causation. d. The EMTs are not negligent because the EMTs have no control over the patient's medical condition 101. What is the distinction between anatomy and physiology? a. Anatomy is the study of physical body structures, whereas physiology is the study of emotions and behavior. b. The terms are synonymous. c. Anatomy is the study of body components and systems, and physiology is the study of injuries and disease processes. d. Anatomy is the study of body structures, and physiology is the study of body function. 102. With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: a. added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning b. the foundation of a word or term. c. the combination of any two or more whole words. d. a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. 103. The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the: a. Right upper b. Left lower c. Right medial d. Left upper 104. The term lateral is best defined as: a. Under the arms b. Toward the middle of c. To the back of d. To the side 105. What is the primary reason for an EMT to use specific and proper medical terminology? a. People may think that an EMT is not intelligent or professional unless she uses medical terms. b. Medical communication needs to be exact and consistent. c. It will make patients and family members trust in the EMT's abilities more. d. EMS providers can't bill for services unless the correct terminology is used in all documentation. 106. While transporting a patient with a traumatic wound to the back, you call in report to the receiving hospital over the radio. Due to radio static and background noise in the Emergency Department, the physician has had to ask you twice to repeat if the wound was superior or inferior. Why would this distinction be important? a. The physician is just trying to determine if the wound is deep or not so she knows what to prepare for. b. The answer is not necessarily important. The physician is just focusing on getting her standard questions answered while dealing with an inadequate radio system. c. The location of the wound is important in determining which types of resources to have available when the patient arrives. d. It is a triage question to determine if the patient is critical or not so the hospital can prioritize. 107. What word would be used to refer to a patient's rapid breathing? a. Tachycardia b. Dyspnea c. Tachypnea d. Dyseffusion 108. A patient with bilateral femur fractures would have which of the following? a. Two fractures in the same femur b. A femur fracture occurring with little or no trauma c. A femur fracture in which the bone ends have punctured the muscle and skin of the thigh d. Fractures of both femurs 109. You and your EMT partner are responding to a medical aid call in the rural West County area. The dispatcher advises that the caller is reporting the patient as having a history of "plegia." Why would it be beneficial to have the dispatcher clarify a prefix for the word plegia? a. Without a clarifying prefix, it is difficult for the EMTs to effectively prepare for the type of patient they may encounter. b. Because a dysplegiac patient generally requires an EMT-Paramedic level of care, and it may change the level of response. c. A patient with plegia is potentially contagious, and the EMTs need to know what precautions are required. d. There is actually no need to clarify the word. 110. Why should an EMT avoid the use of acronyms and abbreviations when communicating? a. They should only be avoided in verbal communications, where they can be misunderstood; they are expected in written patient care reports. b. There is a chance that they can lead to errors in continued care for the patient c. The medical acronyms and abbreviations used by prehospital care providers and hospital staff are different. d. Using acronyms and abbreviations is considered unprofessional. 111. You and your newly hired EMT partner arrive on the scene of a bicycle collision at the local community park. One cyclist stands by and says that she has no injuries. The other is lying on his side on the bike path, guarding his ribs and holding the lower part of his left leg. Your partner kneels next to the man, introduces herself, and asks, "Can you ambulate?" The patient looks up, confused and in obvious pain. "Can you ambulate? You know…walk?" Your partner says, a little louder. After transporting the patient, you discuss the call with your partner and suggest that she avoid using medical terms unnecessarily when talking with patients. She seems insulted and says, "Why?" What would you say? a. Explain that using large words and medical terms can be seen as being egotistical, which can alienate both patients and other providers. b. Tell her that the general public isn't smart enough to understand medical terminology and that all communication must be "dumbed down" when talking to patients. d. You should say that you are an experienced EMT and since she is new, she should just take your advice and apply it. 112. When discussing lef and right in terms of anatomic locations, what do they refer to? a. Lef t and right from the patient's perspective b. Whoever is speaking about the anatomic location determines left and right orientation. c. Anatomic left and right refer to the provider's left and right orientation when facing a patient in the anatomic position. d. What left and right refer to anatomically is dependent on the patient's positioning when care is provided. 113. Which of the following BEST describes the anatomic position? a. Supine with arms crossed over the chest and knees slightly bent b. Standing, facing forward, with arms raised above the head c. Standing, facing forward, with arms at the side, palms forward d. Standing in profile with the hands on the hips 114. Which of the following describes the midline of the body? a. An imaginary line dividing the body into equal right and lef t halves b. An imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottom portion c. The intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus d. An imaginary line dividing the body into a front and a back portion 115. The inside of a person's thigh is also known as its aspect. a. Inferior b. Lateral c. Medial d. Axillary 116. Your 79-year-old female patient appears to show all signs and symptoms of a stroke. Her level of consciousness has rapidly deteriorated, she is now unconscious, and she can no longer control her own airway. While you intervene to manage her airway, the best position in which to keep fluid or vomitus from occluding her airway would be the: a. recovery position b. Fowler position c. Trendelenburg position. d. prone position. 117. What is another term for the frontal aspect of the body? a. Caudal b. Dorsal c. Posterior d. Anterior 118. You respond to a large concert venue where a number of spectators are reported to be severely intoxicated. You are directed to an area where several patients appear to be unconscious, lying face down on the ground. The position of these patients is described as: a. posterior. b. supine. c. anterior. d. prone. 119. The wrist is to the elbow a. Medial b. Inferior c. Distal d. Dorsal 120. A postal worker has been attacked by a dog during her mail delivery route. The patient is a 54-year-old female with several dog bites on her lower extremities and left arm. The worst of these bites is located on the back of her right leg just above the ankle. How can you explain the location of this injury using anatomical landmarks? a. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf distal to the knee. b. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. c. The bite is located on the posterior aspect of the calf just proximal to the knee. d. The bite is located on the anterior aspect of the calf just distal to the knee. 121. With regard to anatomical locations, which of the following is NOT true? a. The umbilicus is located on the ventral aspect of the body. b. The ears are located on the lateral aspect of the head. c. The foot is distal to the knee. d. The mouth is proximal to the nose 122. Which of the following are the abdominal regions created by drawing two imaginary lines intersecting at the navel? a. Abdominal quadrants b. Abdominal planes c. Abdominal regions d. Abdominal sextants 123. Which of the following BEST describes the location of the mid-axillary line? a. A line from the center of the armpit, extending vertically down the side of the chest b. A line drawn diagonally from the outer end of the clavicle to the navel c. A line drawn horizontally from one armpit to the other, across the front of the body d. A line drawn vertically from the xiphoid process to the pubic bone 124. To check the distal pulse of a patient with an injury to the forearm, the EMT would check for a pulse in which location? a. Armpit b. Wrist c. Upper arm d. Throat 125. Which of the following describes the Fowler position? a. Lying flat on the back b. Lying on the side c. Lying on the stomach d. Sitting upright with the legs straight 126. Physiology is the study of: a. Body structures b. Muscles and movement c. Body systems d. Exercise and nutrition 127. In relation to anatomy, the term topography means: a. the study of the skin. b. external landmarks of body structures. c. blood pressure fluctuations d. key elements of the central nervous system. 128. Which of the following BEST describes the medical condition of shock? a. Hypotension b. A state of inadequate tissue perfusion c. An extreme emotional reaction to a stressful event d. Delayed capillary refill 129. Which of the following structures or tissues is NOT part of the musculoskeletal system? a. Ligaments b. Acetabulum c. Fat d. Tendons 130. Which of the following structures do NOT form part of the thorax? a. Sternum b. Ribs c. 8th through 19th vertebrae d. Ischium 131. What are the two most easily injured portions of the spine? a. Sacral and coccygeal b. Cervical and thoracic c. Cervical and lumbar d. Lumbar and sacral 132. Which of the following terms describes the heart muscle's ability to generate its own electrical impulses? a. Contractility b. Conductivity c. Automaticity d. Irritability 133. Which of the following respiratory processes requires the active use of muscles? a. Inhalation b. Bifurcation c. Exhalation d. Gas exchange 134. What type of muscles control the size of the bronchioles in the lungs? a. Voluntary b. Striated c. Skeletal d. Smooth 135. Which of the following organs functions as a reservoir for blood that can be used in case of blood loss? a. Liver b. Spleen c. Thyroid gland d. Heart 136. An artery is a blood vessel that only: a. returns blood to the heart. b. carries oxygenated blood. c. carries deoxygenated blood. d. carries blood away from the heart 137. The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms? a. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta b. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart c. Absorption of oxygen from the blood returning from the lungs d. None are correct 138. A clot cannot form without which of the following blood components? a. Plasma b. Corpuscles c. Platelets d. White blood cells 139. You are caring for a 47-year-old male patient with classical chest pain suggestive of a myocardial infarction. Based on your understanding of the cardiovascular system, you know he could be suffering from damage, narrowing, or blockage of what arteries? a. Pulmonary arteries b. Coronary arteries c. Brachial arteries d. Femoral arteries 140. Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body? a. Veins b. Alveoli c. Capillaries d. Arterioles 141. Which of the following makes up more than half of the volume of blood in the body? a. Platelets b. Plasma c. Red blood cells d. White corpuscles 142. You have been dispatched to the site of a construction accident where a 36-year-old male patient was moderately cut by some machinery. His left arm has a 4" deep laceration that appears to have stopped bleeding with the gauze and direct pressure applied by his coworkers. Your knowledge of physiology suggests that which component of blood was partially responsible for forming clotting factors to stop the bleeding? a. Platelets b. White blood cells c. Plasma d. Red blood cells 143. What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage? a. Decreased ability to fight infection b. Decrease in pulse rate c. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues d. Decreased production of carbon dioxide 144. The pressure against the walls of the blood vessels as blood is ejected from the heart and circulates through the body is the blood pressure. a. Systolic b. Diastolic c. Central venous d. Mean arterial 145. The pulse palpated on the top of the foot is called the pulse. a. phalanx proximalis b. tibialis posterior c. dorsalis pedis d. suprametatarsal 146. In which of the following locations is the femoral pulse palpated? a. At the groin b. Behind the knee c. On the medial side of the ankle, posterior to the tibia d. On the medial side of the upper arm 147. You are on the scene at an office building where a 32-year-old male is described as having difficulty breathing and chest pain. The patient is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally ingested some cookies with peanuts in them this afternoon during his break. He is pale with a pulse rate of 158 and a respiratory rate of 36. You understand that a "fight-or- flight" response may have been activated in this patient, involving which nervous system and which hormone? a. Parasympathetic nervous system and insulin b. Parasympathetic nervous system and epinephrine c. Sympathetic nervous system and insulin d. Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine 148. Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach? a. Production of bile b. Absorption of water from food products c. Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions d. Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream 149. Which of the following structures allows food to move from the mouth to the stomach? a. Trachea b. Venae cavae c. Duodenum d. Esophagus 150. Which of the following body systems primarily produces hormones? a. Cardiovascular b. Gastrointestinal c. Exocrine d. Endocrine 151. The study of how disease affects the functioning of the human body is called: a. psychology. b. physiology. c. pathophysiology. d. anatomy. 152. The volume of air that is moved in and out of the chest in a normal breath cycle is called: a. vital capacity. b. tidal volume c. expiration d. inspiration 153. Not all inspired air reaches the alveoli; 150 mL is stopped in the airway leading to the alveoli. This is called: a. vital capacity. b. bronchial air. c. tidal volume. d. dead air space. 154. In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process? a. Inspiration b. Active c. Passive d. Respiration 155. Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs in two ways: via the red blood cells and: a. white blood cells. b. oncotic pressure. c. hydrostatic pressure. d. plasma. 156. The pressure that is created when the heart pushes the blood throughout the circulatory system is called: a. hyperstatic pressure. b. osmotic pressure c. oncotic pressure. d. hydrostatic pressure. 157. Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following? a. Large proteins b. Contraction of the heart c. Constriction of the vessels d. Dilation of the vessels 158. Certain blood vessels that contain specialized sensors that detect the level of internal pressure and transmit messages to the nervous system, which then triggers the smooth muscle in the vessel walls to make any needed size adjustments, are called: a. pressure receptors b. stretch receptors. c. Chemoreceptors d. volume receptors 159. Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as: a. Preload b. contractility. c. automaticity. d. afterload. 160. Janie is having difficulty breathing. Her current tidal volume is 350 mL, and she is breathing at 28 times per minute. What would be her minute volume? a. 9,800 mL b. 12.5 mL c. 342 mL d. 378 mL 161. Production of energy occurs in what part of the cell? a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Mitochondria c. Nucleus d. Potassium pump 162. You are on the scene at a local park where a 51-year-old male is reported to be confused and having difficulty walking. Your partner notes that the patient is wearing a bracelet indicating he is diabetic. Upon questioning, the patient is able to report that he has not eaten in 8 hours. Your knowledge of pathophysiology suggests that the patient may be suffering from a diabetic emergency. Glucose is a building block for what form of energy in the cell? a. Mitochondria b. Electrolytes c. ATP d. Endoplasmic reticulum 163. Which of the following BEST defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)? a. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. b. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell's engine responsible for all cell function. c. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients. d. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA. 164. The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is: a. mitochondria. b. endoplasmic reticulum c. nucleus. d. sodium pump 165. The movement of ions across the cell membrane is needed to accomplish repolarization. What cell structure is used to prepare for depolarization? a. Mitochondria b. Nucleus c. Endoplasmic reticulum d. Sodium potassium pump 166. The most vulnerable part of the cell is the: a. mitochondria. b. DNA c. Membrane d. Nucleus 167. Cells make up tissues, tissues make up organs, and organs make up: a. Organelles b. Sections c. systems. d. Groups 168. What substances, when dissolved, separate into charged particles? a. ATP b. Electrolytes c. Cations d. Ions 169. The basic nutrient of the cell and the building block for energy is: a. Glucose b. Protein c. Oxygen d. Water 170. What element does the cell need in order to NOT dehydrate and die? a. Glucose b. Proteins c. Water d. Oxygen 171. The process by which glucose and other nutrients are converted into energy is called: a. catabolism. b. Respiration c. Metabolism d. Depolarization 172. What is the type of metabolism that occurs when energy is created with a balance of adequate oxygen and nutrients? a. Anaerobic b. Aerobic c. Hypoxic d. Homeostatic 173. The metabolism that creates large amounts of carbon dioxide and lactic acid but generates little energy is called: a. homeostatic. b. hyperoxic. c. aerobic. d. anaerobic. 174. Our blood transports oxygen from the lungs to the cells and returns with what byproduct of metabolism? a. Lactic acid b. Carbolic acid c. Carbon dioxide d. Carbon monoxide 175. The respiratory system moves air in and out; however, to cells, the air that is inhaled must meet up with the circulatory system. a. Defuse b. Hyperoxygenate c. Register d. Perfuse 176. You have been called to a private residence where a 16-year-old female patient is reported by her parents to be "acting strangely" and possibly "on something." Upon your arrival, the patient is locked in her bedroom refusing to open the door. The patient refuses to speak to you and will only come out if her best friend is present. Your knowledge of life-span development indicates that the following characteristics are common with a patient of this age. a. Depression and suicide b. Preoccupation with body image c. Self-destructive behaviors such as tobacco, alcohol, and drug use d. All are correct 177. What is the stage of development where there are several physiological and psychosocial changes, second only to infancy or adolescence? a. Late adulthood b. Middle adulthood c. Toddler d. Preschool age 178. When you place your finger in an infant's palm, she grasps it with her fingers. This is an example of which reflex? a. Sucking b. Palmar c. Rooting d. Moro 179. At which of the following stages is toilet-training most likely to begin? a. Preschool age b. Infant c. Toddler d. School age 180. Which of the following is the term used to describe an infant's reaction to his environment? a. Attitude b. Bonding c. Personality d. Temperament 181. You have been dispatched to a shopping mall to assess a 1-month-old female patient that tumbled out of her stroller while her mother was shopping. Upon your arrival, the baby is awake, alert, and happily smiling and cooing at her mom. The mother reports that the child did not appear to suffer any injuries as a result of the fall. As you assess the patient and place your finger in her hand, she grasps it tightly. This is known as the: a. sucking reflex. b. Moro reflex. c. palmar reflex d. rooting reflex. 182. You are assessing a 6-month-old female patient who, according to the parents, is not acting normally. At this stage of development, the patient should be able to do which of the following? a. Sit alone on the floor b. Sit upright in a high chair c. Sleep d. Respond to the word "no" 183. You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with "empty-nest syndrome." What age group is this associated with? a. Middle adulthood b. Middle-aged adulthood c. Late adulthood d. Early adulthood 184. In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of previous blood volume? a. Infancy b. Late adulthood c. Early adulthood d. Middle adulthood 185. Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient? a. Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg b. Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 34/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg c. Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg d. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 80 mmHg 186. You are assessing a 12-year-old male patient who has been involved in a bicycle accident. This patient would be classified as being in which stage of life? a. Middle school age b. School age c. Adolescent d. Junior school age 187. Middle adulthood is the stage of life from to years. a. 35;55 b. 35;65 c. 41;60 d. 31;60 188. Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges? a. Self-worth b. Hygiene c. Tax burden d. All are correct 189. What is a normal heart rate for a school age child? a. 140-160/minute b. 80-130/minute c. 80-120/minute d. 70-110/minute 190. Your 4-month-old patient is reported to be irritable and lethargic after feeding poorly for two days. One method for assessing the patient's level of hydration is to look at one of the soft spots on the surface of the skull. This soft spot is known as the: a. anterior fontanelle b. acromion process. c. mandibles. d. carpals. 191. When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the: a. rooting reflex. b. startle reflex c. Moro reflex. d. scaffolding reflex. 192. Which of the following is the feeling infants get when they know all their needs will be met? a. Scaffolding b. Bonding c. Trust d. Moro reflex 193. A 26-month-old toddler is reported to have fallen and lacerated his chin. His mother did not witness the fall. As you proceed through your assessment, your partner reports that she's concerned about his heart rate, which she measures as 64. She's checked it twice. Your knowledge of normal vital signs for a patient this age suggests that his pulse rate is: a. too slow. b. too fast. c. within normal range. d. not reliable. 194. During which age group is the body in peak physical condition? a. Preschool b. Adolescent c. Early adult d. Middle adult 195. Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as "the twilight years"? a. Middle adulthood b. Late adulthood c. Adolescence d. Early adulthood 196. The transition from childhood to adulthood is known as which of the following? a. Transitional b. Young adult c. Adolescence d. Early adulthood 197. Infancy is defined as the stage of life from birth to: a. 9 months. b. 18 months. c. 15 months. d. 12 months. 198. Patients in which age group tend to be very concerned with body image? a. School age b. Adolescence c. Middle adulthood d. Early adulthood 199. Your 89-year-old male patient has called for help because he almost passed out after bringing in his garbage cans from the curb. The patient lives alone and says that he became panicked when he started feeling so lightheaded and dizzy. Patients in this age group often undergo all of the following changes to their health, except: a. blood volume decreases b. increased metabolism c. sleep-wake cycle disrupted. d. deterioration of respiratory system. 200. Which of the following is NOT a common psychosocial challenge of late adulthood? a. Self-destructive behaviors b. Concern about death and dying c. Financial burdens d. Issues of self-worth 201. The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: a. gurgling. b. Stridor c. Rhonchi d. rales. 202. The trachea branches off at the and forms two mainstem bronchi. a. Bronchioles b. Pleura c. Alveoli d. Carina 203. Which of the following patients should NOT have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver? a. A 35-year-old diabetic woman who is in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway, who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband b. A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. c. A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter d. A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure. 204. All of the following can result in airway obstructions, except: a. burns. b. infections. c. the tongue d. facial trauma. 205. On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene? a. Motor vehicle collision b. Cardiac arrest c. Seizure d. All are correct 206. You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: a. tape the dentures in place. b. remove the dentures c. leave the dentures in place. d. use an infant mask over the nose 207. To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of liters per minute and create a vacuum of mmHg. a. 300; 30 b. 30; 30 c. 300; 330 d. 30; 300 208. Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? a. Regular chest movements b. Nasal flaring c. Equal expansion of both sides of the chest when patient inhales d. Typical skin coloration 209. Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? a. It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open b. It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. c. It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. d. All are correct 210. Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: a. say "hello." b. check for adequate chest rise. c. determine a respiratory rate. d. auscultate for breath sounds 211. Which of the following is true concerning the procedure for inserting a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? a. The bevel should be turned toward the nasal septum b. If a water-soluble lubricant is not available, a silicon spray can be substituted. c. It can only be placed in the right nostril. d. The length of the device is not as important as it is with oropharyngeal airways. 212. Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? a. Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. b. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. c. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth d. Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. 213. What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air? a. Stridor b. Hoarseness c. Snoring d. Gurgling 214. Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: a. insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. b. roll him over onto his side to clear the airway c. perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs. d. move the patient to the ambulance and suction. 215. When suctioning the airway, suction should never be applied for longer than seconds. a. 10 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 216. You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations again, you should: a. finger sweep the airway. b. tilt the head back further. c. perform chest thrusts. d. ease the head forward a little. 217. Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? a. They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture b. They do not come in pediatric sizes. c. They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. d. They cannot be used in a patient with a gag reflex 218. What is the danger that an altered mental status can pose to a patient's breathing? a. Depressed alveolar function b. Loss of muscle tone and airway collapse c. Bronchospasms d. Hyperoxia 219. Which of the following structures is found in the lower airway? a. Bronchi b. Uvula c. Pharynx d. Tonsils 220. Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient? a. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling. b. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult. c. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults. d. Gastric distention is unlikely. 221. When inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient’s pharynx? a. 45 b. 90 c. 180 d. 270 222. You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway? a. Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip b. Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning c. Using a 14 French suction catheter d. Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached 223. The jaw-thrust maneuver is the only airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or unknown mechanism of injury. a. recommended b. required c. prohibited d. forbidden 224. Which of the following patients does NOT require the administration of supplemental oxygen? a. A 60-year-old woman with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who can speak two or three words at a time without a breath b. A 6-year-old male with a history of asthma whose breath sounds are silent and who is drowsy c. A 31-year-old male who is unresponsive due to an overdose of narcotics d. A 24-year-old woman who is breathing 28 times per minute after being in an argument with her husband 225. Your patient is a motorcyclist who was ejected after striking a guard rail. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli and is breathing shallowly six to eight times per minute. Which of the following should you do first? a. Use a bag-valve mask with supplemental oxygen b. Perform a rapid trauma assessment. c. Apply a cervical collar. d. Apply a nonrebreather mask with an oxygen flow rate of 15 lpm. 226. What is the relatively rare condition that can cause respiratory depression? a. Lungs can react unfavorably to oxygen when the concentration is too high for a long period of time and this can depress breathing. b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has changed the stimulus to breathe to the hypoxic drive and high concentration can depress breathing c. High concentration of oxygen can depress breathing when the patient has an allergic reaction from the oxygen. d. The eyes can develop scar tissue on the retina from a high concentration of oxygen 227. A 16-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and increased respiratory rate, increased heart rate, and leaning forward with his hands on his knees. His skin is pink and his accurate pulse oximetry is 96. This patient is suffering from respiratory: a. failure. b. hypoxia. c. Distress d. arrest. 228. You have arrived at the scene of a call for