NBCOT/COTA - Exam Q-bank; 2022. (answered) A+ guide.
NBCOT/COTA - Exam Q-bank; 2022. In infant development, which comes first: bilaterality or unilaterality? - precedes unilaterality in infant development When does hand dominance begin to develop? - Hand dominance begins to develop at 3 to 6 years, and is not fully defined until 6 years Can someone with receptive aphasia participate in sensory testing? - Individuals with this disorder cannot comprehend spoken or written words or symbols. Individuals cannot understand verbal directions or respond to sensory stimuli. What is agnosia? - Agnosia is a category of defecits where the patient lacks recognition of familiar object as perceived by the senses. This could involve all the senses and manifests with problems in body scheme, such as somatognosia and anosognosia. What is somatognosia? - Lack of awareness of one's body parts. What is anosognosia? - Anosognosia: Transient, severe form of neglect. Patient does not recognize the presence or severity of his paralysis. What is prosopagnosia? - Face blindness. Inability to identify an individual by their face. What is visual-spacial agnosia? - Affects perception of spatial relationship between objects, or between objects and self. What is auditory agnosia? - Inability to recognize sounds, words and non-words. What is visual agnosia? - Lack of ability to recognize common objects and demonstrate their use in an activity. What is apraxia? - Loss of the ability to execute or carry out learned (familiar) movements, despite having the desire and the physical ability to perform the movements What is ideomotor apraxia? - Inability to imitate gestures or perform a purposeful motor task on command, even though the patient is able to fully understand the idea or concept of a task. This is often associated with left hemisphere damage. What is ideational apraxia? - The disability of carrying out complex sequential motor acts. Caused by a disruption of the conception, rather than execution. (Loss of tool function knowledge) What is constructional apraxia? - Unable to produce designs in 2 or three dimensions by copying, drawing, or constructing. What is oral apraxia? - Difficulty in forming and organizing intelligable words, though the musculature required to do so is in tact. Differs from disarthria because no muscles are affected and speech is not slurred. What is a neuroma? - A ______ is an unorganized mass of nerve fibers resulting from a laceration (either surgical or accidental) or amputation in which the nerve regrows in unorganized bundles. Results in sharp, radiating pain. By what age does an infant sit erect and unsupported for several minutes? - By 8 to 9 months, an infant can sit erect and unsupported. What is reflex sympathetic dystrophy? - __________ is caused by trauma, post-surgical inflammation, infection, or laceration to an extremity. Characterized by pain, edema, shiny skin, blotchy skin, and excessive sweating or dryness. What is another name for reflex sympathetic dystrophy? - Complex regional pain syndrome. What is a symmetric tonic neck reflex? - When an infant's neck is extended, the elbows extend and the hips flex. When the head is lowered, the elbows flex and the hips extend. What is a bunny hop pattern? - A bunny hop pattern is a result of symmetric tonic neck reflex utilization in order to elicit movement at the hips and elbows for mobility. What is a neuroma? - A complication of nerve structure or amputation. A traumatic ______ is an unorganized mass of nerve fibers resulting from accidental or surgical cutting of the nerve. Results in sharp, radiating pain. What sensory region does the radial nerve innervate on the hand? - Radial Nerve What sensory region does the ulnar nerve innervate in the hand? - Ulnar Nerve What sensory region in the hand is innervated by the median nerve? - Median Nerve What stage is initiated by looking at and reaching for food? - The oral preparatory phase. What behavior would a child with poor modulation of tactile input display? - Children with autism often are unpredictable, both craving and avoiding sensory stimuli at various times. After swallowing a pureed substance, you notice the individual has a wet, gurgling voice. What might this indicate? - Possible aspiration. A videoflouroscopy is often times needed to determine is this is the case. In an acute care psychiatric setting, which group treatment is the most appropriate for individuals with disorganized psychosis? - Directive group treatment: a highly structured approach used in acute care for minimally functional individuals. What type of group structure would be most appropriate for individuals with substance abuse? - A task group is appropriate for substance abuse disorders. What group format is most appropriate for eating and adjustment disorders? - Psychoeducation groups What is a Laissez-Faire leadership style? - Laissez-Faire is a "hands off" approach. Goals are not stated, the purpose is not clear, members are not discouraged or encouraged. This is for a high-functioning group. What is the optimum number of members for a therapy group? - Five to six. What is the optimum number of members for a counseling group? - No more than eight members. What would you do if you had ten people assigned to your group? - Divide them into two subgroups. What is autocratic leadership? - The leader exerts complete control. What is democratic leadership? - This style can be a problem-solving style. Group members feel safe to express views, thoughts, and feelings. According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as beneficence? - Concern for the safety and well-being of the recipients of OT services. According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as nonmaleficence? - Ensure recipient's safety and do no harm. According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as autonomy? - Respect patient rights, including confidentiality. According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as procedural justice? - Comply with laws According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as veracity? - Providing accurate information when representing the profession (don't lie) According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as duty? - Maintain credentials and continually learn craft According to the OT code of ethics, what is defined as fidelity? - Treat colleagues and other professionals with respect, fairness, and integrity. What are the normal ROM limits of cervical flexion, extension, and lateral flexion? - 0-45 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of cervical rotation? - 0-60 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of thoracic and lumbar spine flexion? - 0-80 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of thoracic and lumbar spine extension? - 0-30 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of lateral flexion of the spine? - 0-40 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of rotation of the spine? - 0-45 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder flexion? - 0-170 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder extension? - 0-60 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder abduction? - 0-170 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder adduction? - 0 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of horizontal adduction? - 0-130 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of horizontal abduction? - 0-40 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder internal rotation? - 0-70 degrees in shd abduction 0-60 degrees in shd adduction What are the normal ROM limits of shoulder external rotation? - 0-90 degrees in shd abduction 0-80 degrees in shd adduction What are the normal ROM limits of elbow flexion? - 0-140 degrees What are the normal ROM limits of elbow extension? - 0 degrees What are the normal ROM limits for pronation and supination? - 0-80/90 degrees What are precautions of neuroleptic medications? - Power tools and sharp instruments should be avoided, and sun exposure should be limited. What is extrapyramidal syndrome? - Extrapyramidal syndrome is a neurological side effect of anti-psychotic medication that mimics the effects of Parkinson's disease. This can cause rigidity, bradykinesia, cogwheel and leadpipe rigidity, loss of postural mechanisms, and a resting, pill-rolling tremor. What is tardive dyskinesia? - Tardive dyskinesia is a neurological syndrome caused by the long-term use of neuroleptic drugs. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements. Features of the disorder may include grimacing, tongue protrusion, lip smacking, puckering and pursing, and rapid eye blinking. Involuntary movements of the fingers may appear as though the individual is playing an invisible guitar or piano. What is ataxia? - ______ describes a lack of coordination while performing voluntary movements. It may appear as clumsiness, inaccuracy, or instability. What is bradykinesia? - Bradykinesia means "slow movement." What is choreoathetosis? - ____________ is a movement of intermediate speed, fluctuating between the quick, flitting movements of chorea and the slower, writhing movements of athetosis. What is dystonia? - ________ is a neurologic movement disorder characterized by sustained muscle contractions, usually producing twisting and repetitive movements or abnormal postures or positions. What is Huntington's Disease? - The classic signs of HD include the development of chorea-or involuntary, rapid, irregular, jerky movements that may affect the face, arms, legs, or trunk-as well as the gradual loss of thought processing and acquired intellectual abilities (dementia). What is adiadochokinesis? - The inability to perform rapid alternating movements such as pronation/supination. What is dysmetria? - Dysmetria is the inability to estimate the ROM necessary to meet the target. Evident when the individual tries to touch the nose. What is nystagmus? - Involuntary movement of the eyeballs in an up/down, back/forth motion. Interferes with head control. What is dysarthria? - Explosive or slurred speech caused by incoordination of muscles involved in speech. Classified as a neuromotor problem. What is ballism? - Rare symptom that is produced by continuous, abrupt contractions of the axial and proximal musculature of the extremity. What are intention tremors? - Occurs during voluntary movement. Intensified at the termination of the movement and often associated with MS. What are resting tremors? - Occurs at rest and subsides when voluntary movement is attempted. Seen in Parkinson's disease. What is the first level of OT intervention? - Adjunctive methods. These are preliminary to the use of purposeful activities and may include exercise, facilitation and inhibition techniques, positioning, sensory stim, PAMs, and splints. -OTs evaluate performance components (innate abilities) What is the second stage of OT intervention? - Enabling activities. May not yet be considered purposeful activities, but are steps toward performance of purposeful activities. -Performance components and areas (Dressing using adaptive equipment) What is stage three of OT intervention? - Purposeful activities: Evaulate performance areas. Have inherent, autonomous goals and are relevant and meaningful to the patient, such as ADLs, IADLs, etc. Used to evaluate, facilitate, restore or maintain a person's ability to function in life roles. Can the person cook or work in a clinical setting? What is stage four of OT treatment? - Occupations. The highest stage of treatment continuum engages the patient in natural occupations in their living environment and the community. Not all patients can achieve this stage. What is the rehabilitation model? - The rehabilitation model goal is to help the patient learn to work arond or compensate for physical, cognitive, or perceptual limitations. What is a FIM level of "Total Assistance," or level 1? - The person puts forth less than 25% of the effort necessary to do a task. What is a FIM level of "Maximal Assistance," or level 2? - The person puts forth less than 50% of the effort necessary to do a task, but at least 25% What is a FIM level of "Moderate Assistance," or level 3? - The person puts forth between 50% and 75% of the effort necessary to do a task, and requires no more than helping or touching. What is a FIM level of "Minimal Contact Assistance," or level 4? - The person puts forth 75% or more of the effort necessary to do a task, and requires no more help than touching. What is a FIM level of "Supervision or setup," or level 5? - The person only needs someone to standby and cue or coax him/her (without physical contact) so that he/she can do a task. What is a FIM level of "Modified Independence," or level 6? - No helper is needed and the person needs an assistive device. This score can also be obtained when no help is needed but the person takes considerable time to do a task or may complete the task in an unsafe manner. What is a FIM level of "Total independence," or level 7? - No helper is needed and the person performs the task safely, within a reasonable amount of time, and without assistive devices, aids, or changes. What FIMS score would be given to a person who needs a helper to set up items or assistive devices? - A score of "5" or "Supervision or setup" can be obtained if a helper is needed to set up items or assistive devices for the person. How tall should a door threshold be for wheelchair accessibility? - 1/2" and should be bevelled-- should be removed if possible. What is the standard height of a wheelchair seat? - 18". Toilets are typically 15" and should be raised to accommodate transfers. What is the minimum doorway width for a wheelchair? - 32" What is the National Alliance for the Mentally Ill? - Provides support groups open to clients & families with a focus on education and support for mental illness. Which sensations return FIRST following a nerve injury? - Pain and temperature What is occupational performance? - Ability to carry out ADLs. Evaluation looks at activity demands, client factors and environment. What food consistency is most difficult to swallow? - Foods that have liquid and solid consistencies are hardest to chew and swallow. In mental health, planning for discharge involves evaluating what? - Occupational performance What is AC MRDD? - Accredidation Council for Services for Mentally Retarded and Developmentally Disabled What is spinal shock? - Transient physiological reaction to depression of the cord below the SCI level. Associated loss of sensorimotor function and flaccid paralysis. Flaccid paralysis symptoms last several days. What is functional skill training? - Focuses on mastery of a specific task. Requires client to repeatedly practice the substeps of a task with the # of cues for each task gradually faded out. What is anterior cord syndrome? - Often associated with a lesion causing variable loss of motor and sensation function. Proprioception preserved. When should continuous reinforcement be utilized? - When teaching new skills. When should intermittant reinforcement be utilized? - When maintaining a behavior. What is central cord syndrome? - Central injury to cervical spinal cord resulting in greater weakness in UEs than in LEs. What is conus medullaris syndrome? - Assoc. with injury to the sacral cord and lumbar nerve roots. Patients present with areflexic bladder, bowel, and lower limbs. Sacral segments sometimes show preserved reflexes. What is cauda equina syndrome? - Due to injury of lumbosacral nerve roots in spinal canal. Leads to areflexic bladder, bowel, and lower limbs. What is Brown-Sequard syndrome? - A hemisection lesion of the cord resulting in ipsilateral motor loss and contralateral loss of sensitivity to pain and temp. What is parasthesia? - Sensation of tingling, itching, numbness or burning caused by sustained nerve pressure or reduced blood flow. What are the muscles of the rotator cuff? - Supraspinatus Infraspinatus Subscapularis Teres Minor Should you pass a Level II fieldwork student if they are functioning below the minimal entry level? - Students functioning below entry level should be failed. What is "close supervision" defined as? - Close supervision is defined as "daily, direct contact at the site of work" What is a program evaluation? - A program evaluation is the compilation of the intervention results for a population of individuals. What is Durable Medical Equipment (DME)? - Items that can withstand repeated use, such as a wheelchair, medical bed, and walkers. Is a shower chair considered a DME? - Adaptive equipment is not covered under Medicare as a DME. Items not included are shower chairs, reachers, hand-held showers. What are the main goals of work hardening? - To return the individual to work. Focus on pain management and proper body mechanics is key. Allen Cognitive Scale - 21 Group Development (External Link) - 58 What functionality does a person with C1-C3 SCI have? - -Individuals required to use a respirator -Individuals might have limited head and neck movement -Able to use "sip and puff" wheelchair -Completely dependendent in ADLs and transfers What functionality does a person with C4 SCI have? - -Person has full mobility of the head and neck -Able to breathe independently with low stamina -Complete body paralysis below neck -Possibility of autonomic dysreflexia -"Sip and puff" wheelchair required -Completely dependent in ADLs and transfers What functionality does a person with C5 SCI have? - -Good elbow flexion in order to self feed (with a mobile arm support) -Supination available -No finger or wrist movement -Breathes independently with low stamina -Electric wheelchair may be used with hand control What functionality does a person with C6 SCI have? - -Complete paralysis of legs and torso. -Able to extend wrist and flex the elbow. -Independent in transfers from toilet to wheelchair. -Able to reach forward. -Benefits from splint to promote wrist tenodesis. -Able to do some ADLs, such as shaving and dressing upper body. -Assistance may be required to dress lower body. -Needs assistance to transfer from bed to wheelchair. What functionality does a person with C7 SCI have? - -Elbow extension available -Wrist flexion available -Finger extension available -Mod I feeding -Dress Mod I to min assist -Bathing & Grooming Mod I -Toileting Mod I -Transfers Independent What is Guillain-Barre syndrome? - An autoimmune disease in which the peripheral nerves become inflammed. Results in numbness and paralysis in the legs, upper body, and face. Level of independence depends on extent of paralysis. What is the best way to obtain detailed information about an individual's job requirements? - By examing a job analysis. A job analysis is a detailed description of the physical, sensory, and psych demands of a job. What postural stability must an individual demonstrate before being able to use a mobile arm support? - Lateral trunk stability What is rotation? - A type of in-hand manipulation that is displayed when an individual turns a nut on a bolt. What functionality does a person with C8-T1 SCI have? - -Full UE control, including fine coordination and grasp -ADLs, mobility and communication are Mod I What functionality does a person with T6 SCI have? - -Increased endurance -Larger respiratory reserve -Pectoral girdle stabilized for heavy lifting -ADLs Independent (No assistive devices) -Uses braces with great difficulty for ambulation What functionality does a person with T12 SCI have? - -Improved endurance and trunk control. -ADLs and IADLs and independent -Mobility: Ambulates with long leg braces and crutches -Uses wheelchair for energy conservation What functionality does a person with L4 SCI have? - -Hip flexion and knee extension -Independent in all activities plus ambulation -Bowel and bladder control is not voluntary What is Pes Valgus? - Pes Valgus (Pronated Foot) What is pes varus? - Club foot (Supinated foot) What is Pes Valgus? - Pes Valgus (Pronated Foot) What is pes varus? - Club foot (Supinated foot) What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level I? - NO RESPONSE Person does not respond to sounds, sights, touch or movement. What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level II? - GENERALIZED RESPONSE -Begins to respond to sounds, sights, touch or movement -May open eyes, but does not focus on anything in paricular -Respond slowly, inconsistently, or after a delay -Responses may include chewing, sweating, breathing faster, increased BP, etc. What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level III? - LOCALIZED RESPONSE -Patients begin to move their eyes and look at specific people and objects -Turn heads in the direction of loud voices of noise -Can follow simple commands, such as "Squeeze my hand" What is Ranchos Los Amigos Coma Scale Level IV? - CONFUSED AND AGITATED -Patient is confused and agitated about where they are and what is hapening in the surrounding -At the slightest provocation, patient may become restless, agressive, or verbally abusive What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level V? - CONFUSED AND INAPPROPRIATE -Patient is confused and does not make sense in conversations, but may be able to follow simple directions -May get upset when stressed, but agitation is no longer a major problem -Frustration as elements of memory may return What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level VI? - CONFUSED BUT APPROPRIATE -Speech makes sense -Able to perform self care -Poor initiation and termination in activities -Learning difficult What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level VII? - AUTOMATIC APPROPRIATE -Patients are usually coherent -ADLs independent -Difficulty remembering recent events and discussions -Difficulty with calculations, problem solving, judgment -Aware of deficits What is Ranchos Los Amigos Cognitive Scale Level VIII? - PURPOSEFUL AND APPROPRIATE -Patients are independent and can process new information -Able to remember distant and recent events, and can figure out complex and simple problems At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to recognize family and friends? - Level III At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to follow simple directions like "Squeeze my hand?" or "Look at me"? - Level III At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to engage in simple, routine activities such as self feeding and dressing? - Level IV At what Ranchos Los Amigos level do individuals begin to begin to remember events before the accident better than their daily routine? - Level V. At this level, patients also confabulate in order to fill in gaps in memory An individual needs step-by-step instruction to perform self care. What Ranchos level are they at? - Level V At what Ranchos level can a patient follow a schedule, but get confused by changes in the routine? - Level VI You have a patient who is unable to step off of a curb or watch for cars. What Ranchos level are they at? - Level VI At what Ranchos level can a patient pay attention for up to 30 minutes? - Level VI At what Ranchos level are patients aware of the month and year? - Level VI At what Ranchos level can an individual perform self care with minimal assist? - Level VI At what Ranchos level is a patient independent in self care, but continues to need supervision because of safety awareness and judgment? - Level VII At what Ranchos level is an individual ready for vocational and/or driving training? - Level VIII What is retrograde amnesia? - Inability to remember events that occurred before the incidence of trauma or the onset of the disease that caused the amnesia What is anterograde amnesia? - Inability to remember ongoing events after the incidence of trauma or the onset of the disease that caused the amnesia, but able to remember incidents that happened before the incident What is the post-traumatic amnesia classification tool? - A classification tool used by clinicians to assess the severity of injury. What is the Glasgow Coma Scale? - -A brain injury severity scale that assesses depth and duration of impaired consciousness and coma. -Used by clinicians to gauge **CONTINUES
Libro relacionado
- 2013
- 9780991032822
- Desconocido
Escuela, estudio y materia
- Institución
- Keiser University
- Grado
- NBCOT/COTA
Información del documento
- Subido en
- 8 de junio de 2022
- Número de páginas
- 46
- Escrito en
- 2021/2022
- Tipo
- Otro
- Personaje
- Desconocido
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