CITI training includes, Responsible Conduct, Ethics, RCR, Law, HTH & IRB Exam 2022

CITI training includes: Responsible Conduct, Ethics, RCR, Law, HTH & IRB Exam 2022 1. Which of the following is true regarding data analysis?: Data analysis methods should be specified in advance before a study begins. 2. Which of the following most accurately describes data lifecycle manage- ment (DLM): It refers to the tools and processes for handling data during a research study and after it concludes. 3. Which of the following is true regarding the reporting of research results?- : Clear specification of the methods and procedures used is essential. 4. What is the primary responsibility of oversight bodies such as an IRB or an IACUC: To detect compliance with regulatory requirements, including those relating to protecting research subjects. 5. Which of the following is true regarding data acquisition?: Data acquisition should follow a detailed collection plan that is set in advance. 6. In the research context, the term validity most commonly refers to:: - Whether operationalized terms actually measure what they purport to measure. 7. What are the three main goals of data lifecycle management?: Confidential- ity, availability, and integrity 8. Which of the following is true regarding data sharing and stewardship: - Researchers who receive federal funding may have to adhere to a data sharing requirement. 9. If an employer allows a friendship to interfere with a hiring decision, this is typically referred to as:: A personal conflict of interest. 10. If researchers allow their moral or other personal beliefs to influence their objectivity, this is most likely an example of:: A conflict of conscience 11. The entity that normally is supposed to determine whether an academic researcher's conflict of interest can be managed is:: A conflict of interest committee 12. Which of the following most accurately describes a conflict of commit- ment?: It occurs when outside activities interfere with obligations to one's primary employer. 13. The main focus of NIH's conflict of interest policy is:: Financial conflicts of interest 14. Which of the following most accurately describes an institutional conflict of interest?: It occurs when an institution's financial interests could interfere with its research activities 15. Which of following is true about the management of conflicts of interest?- : Management plans are often created to reduce the impact of conflicts of interest rather than completely eliminating them 16. Which of following is true about conflicts of interest: They increase the likelihood of bias. 17. Which of the following statements best exemplifies the importance of mentoring?: A mechanism to transmit values and standards of professional con- duct. 18. What is the most appropriate course of action for a trainee who has a problem with a mentor?: After first attempting to communicate directly with the mentor, the trainee should seek the counsel of a trusted senior person in the department or organization. 19. Which of the following most accurately describes the responsibilities of a trainee in the mentoring relationship?: The trainee must take an active role in the relationship and clearly communicate needs and expectations. 20. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the mentor- ing relationship?: Mentors teach trainees about aspects of academic life that are not covered in textbooks 21. The defining characteristic of a mentor is someone who:: Takes a sincere interest in the growth and development of a trainee. 22. According to the U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy, fabrication involves:: Making up data or results and recording or reporting them. 23. Which of the following is most likely to be considered plagiarism?: Using materials from a source without proper citation. 24. Which of the following is the most effective strategy for preventing re- search misconduct?: Good mentoring 25. Which of the following is true regarding the U.S. Federal Research Mis- conduct Policy?: To have a misconduct finding, the action must have been committed intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly. 26. Which type of research misconduct most likely occurred if someone intentionally removes data points on a graph in order to generate a deceptive conclusion?: Falsification 27. According to U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy, which of the following is considered to be research misconduct?: Good mentoring 28. In response to a research misconduct allegation, what is the next main phase that takes place after the inquiry if there is sufficient evidence to proceed?: An investigation 29. According to the U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy, falsification involves:: Manipulating research materials, equipment, or processes, or changing or omitting data. 30. What is the primary responsibility of oversight bodies such as an IRB or an IACUC?: To detect compliance with regulatory requirements, including those relating to protecting research subjects. 31. In the research context, the term validity most commonly refers to:: - Whether operationalized concepts actually measure what they purport to measure. 32. Which of the following statements is true concerning data selection?: Es- tablishing a data selection strategy prior to collecting data decreases the chance of a biased outcome. 33. Which of following is most likely to own the data resulting from a research project?: The institution where a federally-funded project takes place. 34. Which of the following is true regarding data sharing and stewardship?: - Agencies that fund research may include data sharing requirements in their funding contracts. 35. Which of the following most accurately describes the practice of ghost authorship?: It is a situation where the individual who wrote the manuscript is not listed as an author. 36. Which of the following is a responsibility of each author?: Confirming that data have been accurately presented. 37. Which of the following is an example of plagiarism?: Presenting someone else's ideas or words and claiming them as one's own. 38. Which of the following is true regarding an acknowledgments section?: - The contributions of students and technicians are often listed in the acknowledg- ments section if they do not meet all of the criteria for authorship. 39. Which of the following is true regarding publishing the same content in multiple papers?: Using the same content in multiple papers is deceptive if it is not properly disclosed. 40. Which author is normally responsible for sharing reprints of a publication with readers?: The corresponding author. 41. Which of the following statements is true regarding the International Committee of Medical Journal Editors (ICMJE) guidelines?: Individuals who do not meet the criteria for authorship but who have made a noteworthy contribution are normally listed in the acknowledgments section. 42. Which of the following is the primary criterion for authorship?: Having made a significant intellectual contribution to the work. 43. Which of the following statements is true regarding authorship prac- tices?: Different disciplines have different practices about who should be included as an author. 44. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the review process for grant proposals?: Funding agencies usually have committees, often with external reviewers, that assess the quality of the proposal. 45. A reviewer's main responsibility is to:: Be professional and prompt. 46. The two main criteria that the National Science Foundation (NSF) uses to evaluate grant proposals are:: Intellectual merits and broader impacts. 47. Which of the following statements is true regarding the responsibilities of a reviewer?: A reviewer's conflict of interest should be disclosed to the journal editor or grant agency 48. Which of the following is true regarding single-blind and double-blind review:: Under single-blind review, the identity of the author is revealed to the reviewer. 49. The main reason that grant proposal reviewers with a conflict of inter- est should remove themselves from the review process is because:: Their removal lessens the chance that bias will affect the review process . 50. Which of the following is most directly related to successful mentoring?- : Someone who is committed to the professional development of the trainee. 51. Which of the following is to be avoided when seeking an effective men- tor?: Trainees should assume that whoever is assigned to them as the thesis or research adviser will be their best choice for a mentor. 52. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the mentor- ing relationship?: Mentors teach trainees about aspects of academic life that are not covered in textbooks. 53. Which of the following is most likely to create a poor relationship between mentor and trainee?: A faculty member searches out trainees merely for that person's own career advancement. 54. Which of following is true about the management of conflicts of interest?- : Management plans are often created to reduce the impact of conflicts of interest rather than completely eliminating them. 55. Which of the following most clearly illustrates an example of an academic conflict of interest?: A researcher becomes overly attached to a specific research outcome. 56. Which of the following most accurately describes an institutional conflict of interest?: It occurs when an institution's financial interests could interfere with its research activities. 57. Which of following is true about conflicts of interest?: They increase the likelihood of bias. 58. if an employer allows a friendship to interfere with a hiring decision, this is typically referred to as:: A personal conflict of interest. 59. Data ownership is typically determined by:: The type and source of funds used to support the project. 60. Which of the following is a key reason why international collaborations can be challenging?: Language barriers and cultural differences among collabo- rators can complicate communication. 61. Which of the following is true regarding academic-industry collabora- tions?: The industry sponsor typically owns the data from research that it funds. 62. What is the most appropriate process for determining which journal a collaborative research team should submit their work to?: It should be discussed early on in the collaboration by the members of the research team. 63. Which of the following is true regarding industry-sponsored research?: - Industry sponsors of research may place restrictions on the disclosure of research results. 64. What is the main function of the Bayh-Dole Act of 1980 as it relates academic institutions?: It allows institutions to have control over the intellectual property from federallyfunded research. 65. What is the main function of a Technology Transfer Office?: It helps re- searchers to commercialize their work. 66. A research collaboration can be enhanced by:: Discussing intellectual prop- erty issues while the collaboration is forming. 67. Which of the following is true regarding the use of animals in research?: - The attending veterinarian must be allowed to have access to all research animals at all times. 68. Which of the following is the main reason why proper training in euthana- sia techniques is important?: Improper techniques can cause unnecessary pain and distress in animals. 69. Which of the following is empowered by the U.S. federal government to review and approve research activities involving vertebrate animals?: The Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) 70. Prior to implementing any significant change in the use of animals, what is the most important thing that the research team must do?: Obtain IACUC approval for the change. 71. Which of the following most accurately describes the process that must occur when working with research animals covered by U.S. federal regula- tions?: The research team must obtain IACUC approval for the proposed research procedures prior to starting the work. 72. Which entity is responsible for monitoring institutional compliance with PHS Policy?: The Office of Laboratory Animal Welfare (OLAW) 73. What is the primary purpose of the "3Rs" concept from Russell and Burch?: To decrease the use of animals in research and to minimize pain and distress caused by animal experiments. 74. Which of the following is the general guideline that IACUCs use to evalu- ate the potential pain of a procedure conducted with animals?: Any procedure that causes pain or distress in human beings may cause pain or distress in other animals. 75. Which justification would an IACUC most likely accept if a research team plans to withhold pain relief (analgesia) from animals during a project?: 76. Which statement best describes information that must be included in a consent form:: A description of the research's potential benefits and risks. 77. Which of the following best describes when a protocol may be eligible for expedited review by the IRB:: The study involves no more than minimal risk and meets one of the allowable categories of expedited review specified by the federal government. 78. Which of the following statements most clearly illustrates the principle of beneficence:: Determining whether the benefits of a study outweigh the risks. 79. Which statement best describes the role of an IRB:: a committee that reviews different types of human subjects research. 80. Which of the following studies most directly contributed to the estab- lishment of the National Research Act and the creation of the Belmont Report:: The Tuskegee Study. 81. The three ethical principles discussed in the Belmont Report are:: Re- spect for Persons, Beneficence, Justice. 82. As a first step, what must be done before enrolling a young child in a research protocol:: the risks and benefits must be explained to the child's parents or legally authorized representative. 83. Which statement most accurately describes the process leading to the development of the Nuremberg Code:: it was created in response to the harms caused by Nazi researchers around the time of the Second World War. 84. Which of following protocols most likely requires IRB review:: A study to evaluate a newly designed wheelchair by asking elderly individuals to use it. 85. Which statement best describes what an IRB is responsible for review- ing:: Any form of research involving a human subject. 86. With the context of rcr, stewardship primarily refers to:: The obligation to use resources available for research ethically in order to conduct the best research possible 87. Within the context of rcr, social responsibility primarily refers to:: The obligation to design technology or acquire information in ways that take into account what effects those actions may have on society 88. Which of the following most accurately describes U.S. federal policy related to rcr instruction?: Some federal agencies have rcr policies but they differ in terms of the particular format of training that is required 89. Within the context of rcr, compliance primarily refers to:: The obligation to follow specific directive, such as laws and regulations, that govern a research activity 90. Which of the following most accurately describes the main goal of rcr education and training?: To promote greater awareness of proper research practice and research ethics 91. Within the context to rcr, integrity primarily refers to:: Having a sincere commitment to upholding one's word and adhering to ethical and professional standards 92. The view that there is a social contract between researchers and the public is most accurately described by stating that:: The public supports research in various ways and researchers have a corresponding obligation to avoid abusing the public's trust 93. Which of the following is true regarding an acknowledgments section?- : The contributions of technicians and other researchers are often listed in the acknowledgements section if they do not meet all of the criteria for authorship 94. Which author is normally responsible for sharing reprints of a publication with readers?: The corresponding author 95. Which of the following is a responsibility of each author?: Confirming that data have been accurately presented 96. Which of the following is an example of plagiarism?: Presenting someone else's ideas or words and claiming them as one's own 97. Which of the following most accurately describes the practice of ghost authorship?: It is a situation where the individual who wrote the manuscript is not listed as an author 98. Which of the following is true regarding authors who seek to publish the same content in multiple papers?: Using the same content in multiple papers is deceptive if it is not properly disclosed to journal editors or other relevant entities 99. What is the main function of a technology transfer office?: It helps re- searchers to commercialize their work 100. The most important factor determining whether a research collaboration will be successful is:: Whether there is ongoing communication about goals and responsibilities 101. What is the main function of the Bayl-Dole Act of 1980 as it relates to academic institutions?: It allows institutions to have control over the intellectual property from federallyfunded research 102. Which of the following is a key reason why international collaborations can be challenging?: Language barriers and cultural differences among collabo- rators can complicate communication 103. Which of the following is true regarding academic-industry collabora- tions?: The industry sponsor typically owns the data from research that it funds 104. Which of the following is true regarding industry-sponsored research?- : Industry sponsors of research may seek to place restrictions on the disclosure of research results. 105. Which of the following statements is true regarding international re- search and U.S. regulations?: U.S. funded research is often governed by U.S. regulations no matter where the research takes place 106. Data ownership is typically determined by:: The type and source of funds used to support the project 107. A research collaboration can be enhanced by:: Discussing intellectual property issues while the collaboration is forming 108. Which of the following most accurately describes a conflict of commit- ment?: It occurs when outside activities interfere with obligations to one's primary employer 109. Which of the following most accurately describes an institutional con- flict of interest?: It occurs when an institution's financial or non-financial interests could interfere with its research activities 110. Which of the following is true about the management of conflicts of interest?: Management plans are often created to reduce the impact of conflicts of interest rather than completely eliminating them. 111. Which of the following is true about conflicts of interest?: Conflicts of interest increase the likelihood of bias 112. If a friendship with an applicant could interfere with a hiring decision, this is typically referred to as:: A personal conflict of interest 113. Which of the following is true regarding data analysis?: Data analysis methods should be specified in advance before a study begins 114. Which of the following is true regarding data acquisition?: Data acquisi- tion should follow a detailed collection plan that is set in advance 115. Which of the following is true regarding data sharing and stewardship?- : Researchers who receive federal funding may have to adhere to a data sharing requirement 116. What is the primary responsibility of oversight bodies such as IRB or an IACUC?: To detect compliance with regulatory requirements, including those relating to protecting research subjects 117. Which of the following most accurately describes data lifecycle man- agement (DLM)?: It refers to the tools and processes for handling data during a research study and after it concludes 118. Which of the following is most likely to own the data resulting from a research project?: The institution where a federally-funded project takes place 119. Which of the following is true regarding the reporting of research re- sults?: Clear specification of the methods and procedures used is essential 120. In the research context, the term validity most commonly refers to:: - Whether operationalized terms actually measure what they purport to measure 121. Which of the following statements about mentoring is true?: Mentors can provide valuable advice to trainees regarding career decisions and contacts with leaders in their field of research 122. Which of the following most accurately describes good mentoring prac- tice?: Encouraging trainees to receive mentoring from a collection of individuals 123. Which of the following most accurately describes the responsibilities of a trainee in the mentoring relationship?: The trainee must take an active role in the relationship and clearly communicate needs and expectations 124. What is the most appropriate course of action for a trainee who has a problem with a mentor?: After first attempting to communicate directly with the mentor, the trainee should seek counsel of a trusted senior person in the department or organization 125. The defining characteristic of a mentor is someone who:: Takes a sincere interest in the growth and development of a trainee 126. Which of the following is mostly likely to create a poor relationship between a mentor and a trainee?: A mentor who searches out trainees merely for the mentor's own career advancement 127. Which of the following is most directly related to successful mentor- ing?: Someone who is committed to the professional development of the trainee 128. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the men- toring relationship?: Mentors teach trainees bout aspects of academic life that are not covered in textbooks 129. Which of the following statements is true regarding the responsibilities of reviewers?: Reviewers should identify the positive and negative aspects of a manuscript, and indicate where improvements are needed 130. Which of the following is true regarding the traditional peer review process:: Under single-blind review, the identity of the author is revealed to the reviewer. 131. A reviewer's main responsibility is to:: Be professional and prompt 132. Which of the following is the most appropriate step to take if authors believe that their manuscript was reviewed unfairly?: the author can contact the editor with their concerns 133. The two main criteria that the National Science Foundation (NSF) uses to evaluate grant proposals are:: Intellectual merit and broader impact 134. Reviewers have a responsibility to promote ethical peer review by:: Pre- serving the confidentiality of the submission 135. The main reason that grant proposal reviewers with a conflict of inter- est should remove themselves from the review process is because:: Their removal lessens the chance that bias will affect the review process 136. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the review process for grant proposals?: Funding agencies usually have committees, often with external reviewers, that assess the quality of the proposal 137. The main reason that the Royal Society of London developed the mod- ern form of peer review was to:: Control the quality of published papers. 138. Which of the following is true regarding the U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy?: To have a misconduct finding, the action must have been committed intentionally, knowingly, or recklessly 139. If a researcher creates the idea for a project and is not listed in the preferred author order position on resulting publications, is this considered to be research misconduct under federal policy?: No; instead it is a type of authorship dispute 140. Which of the following is most likely to be considered plagiarism?: Using materials from a source without proper citation 141. Which type of research misconduct most likely occurred if someone intentionally removes data points from the data set in order to generate a deceptive conclusion?: Falsification 142. According to U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy, which of the following is considered to be research misconduct?: Plagiarism 143. According to the U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy, fabrication involves:: Making up data or results and recording or reporting them 144. The typical first main phase in response to a research misconduct allegation is called:: The inquiry 145. Which of the following is true regarding research misconduct?: Federal funding agencies typically rely on an institution to make the initial response to an allegation of research misconduct 146. Which type of inappropriate practice mostly likely occurred if a re- searcher takes credit for someone else's idea and does not acknowledge the original source?: Plagiarism 147. According to the U.S. Federal Research Misconduct Policy, falsification involves:: Manipulating research materials, equipment, or processes, or changing or omitting data 148. In response to a research misconduct allegation, what is the next main phase that takes place after the inquiry if there is sufficient evidence to proceed?: The investigation 149. Paraphrasing another author's paragraph by substituting one or two words in each sentence and then adding one citation to the author at the end of the paragraph:: May constitute plagiarism because the original material has not been sufficiently modified to constitute a proper paraphrase 150. An idea is most likely to represent "common knowledge" if:: It can be safely assumed that the readers and the author are both thoroughly familiar with the ideas and its source 151. Authors who reuse portions of text that have appeared in one of their earlier published papers run the risk of being accused by journal editors of:: Self-plagiarism 152. Which of the following situations is most likely to constitute an act of plagiarism?: Copying someone else's text word-for-word without using quotation marks and adding a citation at the end of the material 153. Ethical writing and scholarship is based on an implicit contract between the author and readers, whereby reader assume that what they read is accurate, has been written by the author, and has:: Not been disseminated before unless noted otherwise 154. Which one of the following statements most accurately describes how plagiarism has been defined in this module?: Plagiarism applies not only to ideas that are found in print but also those that are communicated verbally 155. Proper paraphrasing of a sentence written by someone else may be accomplished by:: Using your own words and writing voice to express the idea conveyed in the sentence 156. When authors summarize the work of others, they typically should:: Pro- vide a condensed (shorter) version of the original material 157. According to federal research misconduct policies, what is the maxi- mum number of consecutive words that one can use before it is classified as an instance of plagiarism?: There is no official, federal standard for the number of consecutive words that can be used 158. Which of the following situations is most likely to constitute an instance of plagiarism?: Summarizing a published article in 2-3 distinct paragraphs and including this in a paper 159. Unless the subject matter is considered common knowledge, citations are necessary when writing about:: Ideas, methodologies, or data from other authors and also your own previously published ideas, methodologies, or data 160. The reuse of one's previously published material in a new journal is most appropriate if:: The author informs all the relevant parties and obtains permission to do so 161. Which of the following are the three principles discussed in the Belmont Report? A. IRB review, Federal regulations, Declaration of Helsinki. B. Informed Consent, Institutional Assurance, Researcher responsibility. C. Privacy, Confidentiality, Equitable selection of subjects. D. Respect for Persons, Beneficence, Justice.: D. Respect for Persons, Benef- icence, Justice. 162. Which of the following is an example of how the Principle of Beneficence can be applied to a study employing human subjects? A. Providing detailed information about the study and obtaining the subject's consent to participate. B. Determining that the study has a maximization of benefits and a minimiza- tion of risks. C. Ensuring that the selection of subjects includes people from all segments of the population. D. Ensuring that persons with diminished autonomy are protected.: B. Deter- mining that the study has a maximization of benefits and a minimization of risks. 163. All of the following are true regarding the Belmont Report, EXCEPT: A. The Belmont Report describes the need to carefully consider how re- search discoveries and risks will be fairly distributed in the society. B. The Belmont Report describes the concept of "Respect for Persons". C.The Belmont Report defines and delineates the differences between "Prac- tice" and "Research". D. The Belmont Report indicates that it is necessary to rigorously avoid conflicts: D. The Belmont Report indicates that it is necessary to rigorously avoid conflicts 164. Which of the following studies is linked most directly to the establish- ment of the National Research Act in 1974 and ultimately to the Belmont Report and Federal regulations for human subject protection? A. The Public Health Service Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male. B. Stanford Prison Experiment (Zimbardo). C. The Harvard T3 study. D. Tearoom Trade Study (Humphreys).: A. The Public Health Service Tuskegee Study of Untreated Syphilis in the Negro Male. 165. The Belmont principle of beneficence requires that: A. Subjects derive individual benefit from study participation. B. Potential benefits justify the risks of harm. C. The study makes a significant contribution to generalizable knowledge. D. Risks are managed so that they are no more than minimal.: B. Potential benefits justify the risks of harm. 166. Humphreys collecting data for the Tearoom Trade study under the pre- tense that he was a lookout is an example of a violation of the principle of: A. Respect for persons. B. Justice. C. Beneficence.: A. Respect for persons. 167. According to the Belmont Report, the moral requirement that there be fair outcomes in the selection of research subjects, expresses the principle of: A. Beneficence. B. Respect for persons. C. Justice.: C. Justice. 168. Which of the following is an example of how the principle of beneficence is applied to a study involving human subjects? A. Ensuring that subjects understand that participation is voluntary. B. Ensuring that the selection of subjects is fair. C. Providing detailed information about the study to potential subjects. D. Ensuring that risks are reasonable in relationship to anticipated benefits.- : D. Ensuring that risks are reasonable in relationship to anticipated benefits. 169. A subject in a clinical research trial experiences a serious, unanticipated adverse drug experience. How should the investigator proceed, with respect to the IRB, after the discovery of the adverse event occurrence? A. Do not report the adverse drug experience to the IRB since it is a common adverse experience. B. Report the adverse drug experience to the IRB only if there are several other occurrences. C. Report the adverse drug experience as part of the continuing review report. D. Report the adverse drug experience in a timely manner, in keeping with the IRB's policies and procedures, using the forms or the mechanism provided by the IRB.: D. Report the adverse drug experience in a timely manner, in keeping with the IRB's policies and procedures, using the forms or the mechanism provided by the IRB. 170. How long is an investigator required to keep consent documents, IRB correspondence, and research records? A. Until the study is closed B. Until data analysis is complete C. For a minimum of three years after completion of the study D. As long as the investigator is at that institution: C. For a minimum of three years after completion of the study 171. According to federal regulations, which of the following best describes when expedited review of a new, proposed study may be used by the IRB? A. The study involves no more than minimal risk and meets one of the allowable categories of expedited review specified in federal regulations B. The study is required for a student research project C. The study does not require informed consent or survey instruments. D. The study includes only research subjects that are healthy volunteers.: A. The study involves no more than minimal risk and meets one of the allowable categories of expedited review specified in federal regulations 172. Amendments involving changes to IRB approved protocols do NOT need prior IRB approval if: A. The investigator keeps careful records of all changes and includes them in the final report. B. They only involve changes to the consent form. C. They are eligible for review using expedited procedures. D. The changes must be immediately implemented for the health and well being of the subject.: D. The changes must be immediately implemented for the health and well being of the subject. 173. IRB continuing review of an approved protocol must: A. Be conducted by a convened IRB. B. Include copies of all signed consent forms. C. Occur only when the level of risk changes. D. Occur at least annually.: D. Occur at least annually. 174. A therapist at a free university clinic treats elementary school children with behavior problems who are referred by a social service agency. She is also a doctoral candidate who proposes using data she has and will collect about the children for a case-based research project. Which of the following statements about parental permission is correct? A. The superintendent of the school system can give permission for children to be in the study; therefore, the therapist doesn't have to ask the parents for permission. B. The parents of the children might feel pressure to give permission to the therapist to use their children's data so that she will continue to provide services to their children. C. If it is the best interests of the community that the children participate in the study, parental permission is optional. D. The therapist creates her clients' records; therefore, she does not need parents' permission to use the information for research purposes.: B. The parents of the children might feel pressure to give permission to the therapist to use their children's data so that she will continue to provide services to their children. 175. A general requirement for informed consent is that no informed consent may include any exculpatory language. Exculpatory language is that which waives or appears to waive any of the subject's legal rights or releases or appears to release those conducting the research from liability for negli- gence. Which of the following statements in a consent form is an example of exculpatory language? A. In the event of any distress you may have related to this research, you will be given access to appropriate resources. B.The researcher may stop you from taking part in this research without your consent if you experience side effects that make your emotional condition worse. If you become too emotionally distressed during the research, you may have to drop out. C. Your participation in this research is voluntary. If you choose not to participate, or change your mind later, your decision will not affect your relationship with the researcher or your right to other services that you may be eligible for. D. Taking part in the research is voluntary, but if you choose to take part, you waive the right to legal redress for any research-related injuries.: D. Taking part in the research is voluntary, but if you choose to take part, you waive the right to legal redress for any research-related injuries. 176. A criterion for waiving informed consent is that, when appropriate, sub- jects are provided additional pertinent information after the study. In which of the following studies would it NOT be appropriate to provide subjects with information about missing elements of consent: A. A study in which subjects were told that they performed in the third quar- tile on an anagram task when in reality students were randomly assigned scores that were not related to their actual performance. B. A study in which researchers told students that they would be given a quiz after reading some study materials when the researchers did not intend to use a quiz, but were attempting to focus subjects' attention on the material. C. A study involving decisionmaking games in which subjects were led to believe that they were interacting with another student in another room, but were actually interacting with a computer programmed to provide consistent responses to all subjects. D. A study in which subjects were assigned to study activities based on