NURS 231 PATHOPHYS FINAL EXAM 2022 questions and answers

NURS 231 PATHOPHYS FINAL EXAM A bodybuilder's muscles will display hyperplasia. Correct Answer: False Barrett esophagus is an example of dysplasia Correct Answer: false Hypertrophy is an increase in the size of an organ or tissue caused by an increase in the number of cells Correct Answer: True Lack of nerve stimulation can cause cells to atrophy Correct Answer: True Proportion of people with a disease who are positive for the disease Correct Answer: sensitivity How likely the same result will occur if repeated Correct Answer: reliability How a tool measures what it is intended to measure Correct Answer: validity People without the disease who are negative on a given test Correct Answer: specificity Which is NOT true of the cytoskeleton? Correct Answer: it includes peroxisomes and proteasomes Which of the following are true of the cell? Select all that apply. Correct Answer: 1: Proteins carry out the functions of the cell membrane 2: Lysosomes are the digestive system of the cell 3: Microfilaments are thin, threadlike cytoplasmic structures Which are true of the cell membrane? Select all that apply. Correct Answer: 1: Controls the transport of materials from the outside fluids to within 2: Helps with the conduction of electrical currents in nerve and muscle cells 3: Aids in the regulation of cell growth and proliferation Which are false of the mitochondria? Select all that apply. Correct Answer: 1: They are found far from the site of energy consumption. 2: They control free radicals. High blood pressure is an example of which of the following? Correct Answer: pathophysiology A patient complains of chest pain and an elevated blood pressure. What are these examples of? Correct Answer: signs and symptoms Which of the following is true of a test's sensitivity? Correct Answer: If negative, it can safely be assumed that the person does not have a disease Chemical agents (poison, alcohol) are examples of which of the following? Correct Answer: Etiologic factors Define tertiary prevention and give an example: Correct Answer: Tertiary prevention occurs after a disease has been diagnosed and clinical intervention is needed to reduce complications or deterioration. One example is the use of certain medications one must take after a heart attack to help reduce the risk of a future event or death. Compare and contrast the two types of gangrenous necrosis. Correct Answer: In dry gangrene the affected tissue becomes dry and shrinks, the skin wrinkles, and its color changes to dark brown or black. The spread of dry gangrene is slow. It results from a cut off in arterial blood supply and is a form of coagulation necrosis. In wet gangrene, the affected area is cold, swollen, and pulseless. The skin is moist, black, and under tension. Blebs form on the surface, liquefaction occurs, and a foul odor is caused by bacterial action. The spread of tissue damage is rapid. Explain what necrosis is and give an example and description of one type of necrosis. Correct Answer: necrosis is cell death to an organ or tissue with still being a part of a living person. An example of this would be luiquefactive necrosis. This is when the cells die and the catalytic enzymes do not get destroyed after the cells death. This could cause necrosis Sunburn Correct Answer: radiation injury Obesity Correct Answer: nutritional imbalances Reactive oxygen species Correct Answer: free radical injury Low oxygen to tissues Correct Answer: hypoxic cell injury Fractures Correct Answer: physical agents OTC drugs Correct Answer: Chemical injury Hypothermia Correct Answer: physical agents Radiation treatment Correct Answer: radiation injury Lead toxicity Correct Answer: chemical injury Bacteria Correct Answer: biologic agents List the 4 types of tissue found in the body. Pick 2 and give a description and example of each. Correct Answer: Epithelial tissue- covers the body's outer surface, it is avascular and gets its o2 from the capillaries found in the neighboring connective tissues, and example of this is simple squamous tissue which means one layer of thin cells. Muscular tissue Nervous tissue- is found all throughout the body, helps with communication between tissues and the central nervous system. it aids in the functions of the body due to internal and external stimuli, helps with movement, and electrical signaling. Neurons are an example of this, they aid in communicating to other cells in the body, and they are held and supported by glial cells. Connective tissue What term means "cell eating" and engulfs and then kills microorganisms or other particulate matter? Correct Answer: Phagocytosis What is the term to describe when cells use energy to move ions against an electrical or chemical gradient? Correct Answer: Active transport Give one function of a membrane potential: Correct Answer: Generate nerve impulse, muscle contractions, or cause hormone secretion What is the term that best describes the following process? A transport of protein aiding a lipid insoluble or large molecule across the cell membrane that would otherwise not be able to pass through on its own. Correct Answer: facilitated diffusion Blood tests for tumor markers can make a diagnosis of cancer. Why or why not? Correct Answer: False, only tissue can diagnose. Tumor markers are helpful to assess response to therapy or reoccurrence. Tissue biopsy is of critical importance in what role? Correct Answer: Diagnosing the correct cancer and histology. Explain the TNM system: Correct Answer: T is the size and local spread of the primary tumor. N is the involvement of the regional lymph nodes. M is the extent of the metastatic involvement. List two signs or symptoms a patient may present with that might indicate a cancer diagnosis: Correct Answer: fatigue, anemia What are two systemic manifestations of cancer exhibited by cancer patients? Correct Answer: Weight loss, wasting of body fat and muscle tissue, weakness, anorexia, and anemia, fatigue, sleep disturbances When would surgery be appropriate in the treatment of cancer? Correct Answer: if it is a solid tumor and has clear margins Most chemotherapeutic drugs cause pancytopenia due to bone marrow suppression. What are the 3 possible adverse outcomes of this? Correct Answer: loss of RBCs, WBCs, and platelets, anemia, and hemolysis Cell proliferation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. Correct Answer: false Cell differentiation is the process in which proliferating cells become more specialized cell types. Correct! Correct Answer: True What are two important properties that stem cells possess? Correct Answer: Potency and self-renewal Which of the following are most likely to have arisen from an adult stem cell? Correct Answer: Epithelial Define polyp. Are they benign or malignant? Correct Answer: A polyp is a growth that projects from a mucosal surface, such as the intestine. A polyp can be benign or malignant What are normal genes called that become cancer-causing if mutated? Correct Answer: proto-oncogenes What type of gene is involved in repairing damaged DNA? Correct Answer: Tumor suppressor gene A 40-year-old woman has experienced heavy menstrual bleeding. She was told she has a uterine tumor called a leiomyoma. She is worried she has cancer. What do you tell her? Explain at least 2 differences between a benign and malignant tumor Correct Answer: i would explain to her that it is a benign tumor, and that there is nothing to worry about 1 benign tumor grow by expansion and are usually encapsulated; while malignant tumors grow by invading and taking over tissue 2: benign tissue is well differentiated and looks like the tissue of origin, while malignant cells are undifferentiated and are atypical and do not look like the tissues of origin. A 50-year-old woman was diagnosed with breast cancer from tissue biopsy following her diagnostic mammography. They are determining if it has spread to the lymph nodes. (1) Explain what the sentinel node is. (2) How will they determine if it has spread to the lymph system? (3) Would a detailed family history of disease be important to obtain? Correct Answer: The sentinel node is the first lymph node to which the primary tumor drains. The extent of disease may be determined through lymphatic mapping and sentinel lymph node biopsy. A radioactive tracer and/or blue dye is injected into the tumor to determine the first lymph node. This lymph node is examined for the presence of cancer cells. Yes, heredity can be a strong risk factor for cancer in some families. Malignant tumors have which of the following characteristics? Select all that apply Correct Answer: Variable rate of growth & Spreads by metastasis What are molecular and cellular mechanisms in genes that increase susceptibility to cancer? Select all that apply. Correct Answer: 1: Lack of cellular senescence 2: Angiogenesis 3: Mutations in growth factor signaling pathways List 4 of the 7 risk factors linked to cancer as stated in the module. Correct Answer: hereditary, obesity, environmental agents, and immunological mechanisms 1. ______ is a systemic treatment that enables drugs to reach the site of the tumor as well as other distant sites. Correct Answer: chemotherapy The profound weight loss and wasting of fat and tissue that accompany cancer is known as _______. Correct Answer: wasting or Cancer anorexia cachexia syndrome Which of the following is not a risk factor for developing cancer? Correct Answer: Sunscreen All of the following viral agents are correctly paired with the associated lesion except: Correct Answer: Epstein-Barr virus: carcinoma of the cervix List one example of screening for each method: observation, palpation, and lab test/procedure: Correct Answer: observation: looking at the skin Palpation: palpating breast for abnormal masses Lab: pap smear swabbing for cervical cancer Explain the challenges of diagnosing autoimmune disorders. Correct Answer: There are over 80 identified, many with overlapping presentations. Many manifestations are nonspecific and are seen in other non-autoimmune diseases. Blood testing isn't perfect either, as some tests are more generic and can be elevated in the presence of other diseases. Which cell is the first responder to phagocytosis a foreign invader? Correct Answer: monocyte What allows the lymphocyte to differentiate between self and foreign molecules? Correct Answer: Major histocompatibility complex (MHC) molecule T lymphocytes produce what type of immunity? Correct Answer: Cell-mediated Which immunoglobulin passes immune factors from the mother to the fetus? Correct Answer: IgG Which cell type is an early responder and the most abundant in the body? Correct Answer: Neutrophils Which feature is NOT of adaptive immunity? Correct Answer: Epithelium is a defense mechanism A 12-year-old female presents with itchy eyes, nasal congestion and drainage, and sneezing every spring when the pollen count is high. (1) Explain the immunologic mechanisms that are responsible for her symptoms. (2) What type(s) of treatment might be used to relieve her symptoms? Correct Answer: 1) Mast cells, basophils, and eosinophil’s play an important role in the development of type I reactions because they contain the chemical mediator histamine. A primary or initial-phase response is vasodilation, vascular leakage, and smooth muscle contraction. A secondary or late-phase response is characterized by more intense infiltration of tissues with eosinophil’s and other acute and chronic inflammatory cells, as well as tissue damage. (2) Antihistamines and intranasal corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment. A narrow, surgical-type wound is likely to heal by secondary intention. Correct Answer: false Which of the following is an incorrect pairing of a classic manifestation of acute inflammation with its corresponding cause? Correct Answer: Dolor - inflammatory cells infiltrating sensory nerves B cells are primarily associated with humeral immunity. Correct Answer: true T cells mature in the thymus and are active in cellular immunity. Correct Answer: true B lymphocytes normally produce antibodies against host tissues. Correct Answer: false Antibodies are also known as ______? Correct Answer: immunoglobulin Which of the following hypersensitivity reactions can be treated with the administration of epinephrine Correct Answer: type 1 Which cell is NOT part of the adaptive immune response? Correct Answer: monocytes Features of systemic lupus erythematous include all of the following except Correct Answer: Exophthalmos What are the 2 factors that play a role in the development of autoimmune diseases? Correct Answer: genetics and environmental factors A 40-year-old man presents with cough and shortness of breath. After an H&P and chest films, it is determined he has pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP). The provider does an HIV test, which is positive. Upon further testing, the man's CD4+ cell count is 100 cells/µL and his viral load is 250,000 copies/mL. (1) Why did the provider do an HIV test after the man was diagnosed with PCP? (2) What classification does this man fall into based on his CD4+ count and symptomatology, and why Correct Answer: (1) Opportunistic infections are those common organisms that do not produce infection without impaired immune function. (2) The last phase, or AIDS illness, occurs when the CD4+ cell count falls to less than 200 cells/µL or exhibits an AIDS-defining illness. The risk of opportunistic infections and death increases significantly when the CD4+ cell count falls below 200 cells/µL. Which process is NOT included in wound healing? Correct Answer: Acute-phase response While labile and stable cells can regenerate themselves, _______ cells are unable to undergo mitotic division. Correct Answer: Permanent cells