NURS 6630 TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS

NURS 6630 TEST QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS What will the PMHNP most likely prescribe to a patient with psychotic aggression who needs to manage the top-down cortical control and the excessive drive from striatal hyperactivity? C. Antipsychotics The PMHNP is selecting a medication treatment option for a patient who is exhibiting psychotic behaviors with poor impulse control and aggression. Of the available treatments, which can help temper some of the adverse effects or symptoms that are normally caused by D2 antagonism? D. Second-generation, atypical antipsychotics The PMHNP is discussing dopamine D2 receptor occupancy and its association with aggressive behaviors in patients with the student. Why does the PMHNP prescribe a standard dose of atypical antipsychotics? C. The doses are based on achieving 60% D2 receptor occupancy. Why does the PMHNP avoid prescribing clozapine (Clozaril) as a first-line treatment to the patient with psychosis and aggression? A. There is too high a risk of serious adverse side effects.