TEAS VI – SCIENCE PRACTICE EXAM ( ALL TOPICS COVERED) 2021/2022 UPDATE | CONTAIN SANSWER KEYS| RATED A+

TEAS VI – SCIENCE PRACTICE EXAM COMPLETE COVERAGE OF SCIENCE SUBJECTS  HUMAN BIOLOGY  HUMAN PHYSIOLOGY  BIOLOGY  GENETICS  CHEMISTRY  PHYSICS  SCIENTIFIC METHODS  SCIENTIFIC REASONING   TEAS Practice Exam – Science - Section 1 Human Anatomy and Physiology 1. Which is the correct order of anatomical organization in the human body, from the most basic to the more complex? a. Cell, organ, tissue b. Cell, tissue, organ c. Tissue, cell, organ d. Organ, cell, tissue 2. In the standard “anatomical position”, a person stands: a. with legs apart, arms outstretched, palms up b. with legs apart, arms at sides, palms up c. with legs together, arms at sides, palms forward d. with legs together, arms outstretched, palms down 3. Which of the following anatomical directional references is not matched correctly? a. Medial – toward the midline of the body b. Distal – toward an attached base structure c. Ventral – toward the front or belly side d. Dorsal – on the posterior or back side 4. What type of anatomical section does plane B depict? a. Sagittal b. Coronal c. Cross d. Surgical 5. The main function of the epiglottis is to: a. Produce sound and vocalization b. Protect the airway during swallowing c. Deliver oxygen to the lungs d. Protect the esophagus during eating 6. You are having lunch with a friend. Your friend takes a large bite of food and begins coughing. You ask if you can help, but your friend is unable to speak. What has most likely happened, and what should you do? a. Food is lodged in his esophagus and you should give him water to drink. b. Food is lodged in his esophagus and you should hit him sharply on the back to dislodge it. c. Food is lodged in his trachea and you should immediately apply an abdominal thrust (Heimlich maneuver) to dislodge it. d. Food is lodged in his trachea and you should give him water to drink. 7. The image depicts a(an) . Its function is . a. Alveolus; gas exchange in the lung b. Glomerulus; excretion of waste products by the kidney c. Bile duct; secretion of bile into the digestive system d. Sebaceous gland; secrete oil onto the skin 8. Which of the following structures contain deoxygenated blood? a. Aorta b. Pulmonary vein c. Subclavian artery d. Pulmonary artery 9. The arrow is pointing to the . a. Aortic semilunar valve b. Mitral valve c. Pulmonary semilunar valve d. Tricuspid valve 10. It’s very cold outside and Bill gets into the spa, turning it up to its maximum temperature (106oF). After several minutes in the water, he faints and would have drowned if a passerby had not saved him. Which best explains what happened? a. His body could not tolerate the shock going from cold to hot. b. He suffered a heart attack due to the excess heat. c. He fainted from a lack of oxygenated blood to his brain. d. He received second-degree burns and went into shock. 11. The structures depicted in the illustration are: a. Alveoli in the lung b. Salivary glands in the mouth c. Villi in the intestinal lining d. Glomeruli in the kidney 12. Waves of muscular contractions in the digestive tract are called: a. Peristalsis b. Dialysis c. Arrhythmia d. Hemostasis 13. The structure that connects the liver to the gall bladder is the: a. Hepatic portal vein b. Hepatic duct c. Bile duct d. The liver is not connected to the gall bladder 14. The protein that stores oxygen in skeletal muscle cells is: a. Myosin b. Hemoglobin c. Myoglobin d. Troponin 15. You watch a movie about a jungle adventure. A character is shot with a poison arrow that injects a chemical blocking the action of acetylcholine. What is the unfortunate character most likely to do? a. Fall down b. Fall asleep c. Bleed profusely d. Have a heart attack 16. What type of muscle tissue is shown in the image of the neuromuscular junction? a. Smooth muscle b. Skeletal muscle c. Cardiac muscle d. None of the above 17. The arrow is pointing to the of the reproductive system. a. Testis; male b. Ovary; female c. Prostate gland; male d. Uterus; female 18. In the female uterine (menstrual) cycle, when is fertilization (conception) MOST likely to occur? a. Around day 14 when estrogen peaks b. Roughly 7 days after the end of the menstrual period c. During menstruation d. Both a and b 19. In the male reproductive system, sperm are produced in: a. The testes b. The seminiferous tubules c. The gonads d. All of the above 20. The arrow in the diagram is pointing to a(an) which causes “goose bumps”. a. Sebaceous gland b. Hair follicle c. Arrector pili muscle d. Sweat gland 21. All of the following are effects of aging on the skin EXCEPT: a. Decrease in number of hair follicles b. Thinner epidermis layer c. Fewer melanocytes d. Increased sweat gland activity 22. Which is NOT a function of the integumentary system? a. Synthesis of vitamin D b. Gas exchange c. Regulation of body temperature d. Protection of underlying structures 23. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) is secreted by: a. The thyroid gland b. The hypothalamus c. The parathyroid glands d. The pituitary gland 24. What structure is the arrow pointing to? a. Spleen b. Adrenal gland c. Ovary d. Pancreas 25. Which statement about the pancreas is FALSE: a. It is located between the stomach and small intestine. b. It is both an endocrine and exocrine organ. c. It produces digestive enzymes. d. The production of insulin is controlled by the pituitary gland. 26. The organ depicted in the illustration is and the arrow is pointing to the . a. the liver; hepatic ligament b. the spleen; splenic artery c. a kidney; ureter d. the stomach; small intestine 27. Which of the following structures is NOT part of the urinary system? a. Bladder b. Kidney c. Urethra d. Adrenal gland 28. The urinary system performs all of the following EXCEPT: a. Helps control oxygen levels in the blood b. Helps stabilize blood pH c. Helps detoxify poisons d. Helps regulate blood pressure 29. Which structure is NOT part of the lymphatic system? a. Thyroid gland b. Thymus gland c. Spleen d. Lymph nodes 30. The cells that produce circulating antibodies are: a. Helper T lymphocytes b. Mast cells c. NK cells d. Plasmocytes 31. Which of the following is NOT a primary function of the lymphatic system? a. Maintain normal blood volume b. Produce red blood cells c. Transport of nutrients, hormones and waste products d. Initiate and mediate immune responses 32. This is an image of a long bone. The arrow is pointing to . a. Periosteum b. Compact bone c. Spongy bone d. Epiphyseal line 33. A small, rough protuberance on a bone is called a . a. Tuberosity b. Condyle c. Trochanter d. Spine 34. An epiphyseal line on a bone indicates what? a. The bone has begun a new growth phase. b. The bone was previously fractured in that location. c. The bone has stopped growing. d. The bone has reached its adult length. 35. What part of the body would NOT be considered a part of the circulatory system? a. Blood b. Tonsils c. Blood Vessels d. Heart 36. The thickest parts of the heart are: a. the atriums b. the aorta c. the pulmonary artery d. the ventricles 37. The part of the heart that is responsible for preventing blood from flowing backwards in the heart is the: a. aorta b. arteries c. valves d. ventricles 38. Which is the smallest blood vessel listed below? a. Capillary b. Artery c. Vein d. Aorta 39. Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood? a. Arteries b. Arterioles c. Veins d. Capillaries 40. Atherosclerosis is caused by the build-up of what substance in blood vessels? a. Calcium b. Plaque c. Sodium d. Carbohydrates 41. The passageway that is used for food and for breathing is the: a. Esophagus b. Trachea c. Larynx d. Pharynx 42. A red blood cell will transport oxygen in the blood with the help of which molecule? a. Calcium b. Sodium c. Hemoglobin d. Keratin 43. Where does chemical digestion begin in a human? a. The mouth. b. The stomach. c. The small intestine. d. The large intestine. 44. The food that has been processed by the stomach into a partially digested mixture is known as . a. chimera b. chyme c. pepsin d. amylase 45. Celiac disease is a disease where affected individuals are allergic to gluten. If a person with Celiac disease eats gluten they often will have serious digestion and absorption issues. This is also followed by weight loss and a loss of overall nutrition. Based on this, individuals with celiac disease have issues with which part of the digestive system? a. The stomach. b. The esophagus. c. The small intestine. d. The large intestine 46. Which structure is most responsible for the physical absorption of food in the digestive tract? a. Cilia b. Villi c. Duodenum d. Pancreas Use the following picture for questions 47 and 48. 47. The nucleus of the neuron would be considered letter . a. B b. C c. D d. E 48. What letter represents where myelin would be found in the diagram? a. A b. B c. C d. D 49. Which of the following is NOT considered part of the central nervous system? a. The brain. b. The spinal cord. c. A nerve in the arm. d. The frontal lobe. 50. Where would a group of nerve cell bodies known as ganglion be located? a. In the peripheral nervous system. b. In the central nervous system. c. In the brain only. d. In the spinal cord only. Use the following illustration for questions 51 and 52. 51. The picture above most likely represents a(n) . a. nerve size b. an action potential c. a differential potential d. none of these 52. The minimum threshold potential that must be reached for a nerve to fire is best represented by letter . a. A b. B c. C d. D Use the following diagram for question 53. 53. The ventricles of the heart are represented by numbers . a. 1 and 2 b. 1 and 6 c. 5 and 6 d. 1 and 5 54. Which is correct for a blood pressure reading of 142/78? I. The diastolic pressure is 78 II. The systolic pressure is 142 III. The blood pressure during heart contraction is 78. a. I only b. I and II only c. I and III only d. I, II and III 55. Which of the following are not considered pathogens? a. Bacteria b. Viruses c. Sickle Cell Anemia d. Prion 56. The inflammatory response includes all of the following except: a. The constriction of blood vessels b. A phagocytic attack. c. An increased blood flow d. An increase in temperature 57. An experiment was conducted many years ago when plagues were running throughout the world. A mixture containing cowpox was injected into people because milk maids were strangely immune to small pox. The people injected with cowpox were then immune to smallpox which was plaguing the region. What major discovery was made? a. An antibiotic was created. b. A vaccine was created. c. An anti-inflammatory was created. d. No significant discovery was made. 58. The flu shot, which contains chopped up virus particles, is considered to be a(n) . a. attenuated virus b. live virus c. anti-inflammatory virus d. None of the above 59. Specific immunity is assisted by which immune protein that is generated after infection? a. Macrophages b. Red blood cells c. Antibodies d. Lysozymes 60. What antigens are present on the red blood cells of a person who has type O blood? a. A, only b. B, only c. Both A and B d. Neither A nor B 61. Considering only the ABO blood group, a transfusion of AB blood may be given to a person who has blood type . a. A b. B c. AB d. O 62. In the knee, the end of the leg bones are held together by . a. ligaments b. smooth muscle c. tendons d. cardiac muscles 63. The connective tissue that cushions the vertebrae and provides flexibility to joints is known as . a. cartilage b. tendon c. ligament d. muscle 64. What is a function of the adult human liver? a. The creation of insulin. b. The creation of hormones such as gibberilins. c. The creation of the hormone insulin d. The production of bile. 65. The main structure in the picture above is likely a . a. malpighian tubule b. nephron c. sweat gland d. hair follicle 66. The correct pathway for urine to flow out of the human body is . a. Kidney  ureter  bladder  urethra b. Bladder  ureter  kidney  urethra c. Urethra  bladder  kidney  ureter d. Kidney  urethra  bladder  ureter 67. If a diabetic were to inject too much insulin the end result would be _. a. a dangerous increase in the level of sugar in the body. b. a dangerous decrease in the level of sugar in the body. c. no net change in the sugar as the sugar will be reabsorbed. d. Nothing would occur. 68. What type of tissue is blood considered to be? a. Muscular b. Epithelial c. Adipose d. Connective 69. Adipose tissues are filled with . a. water b. fat c. cartilage d. fiber 70. Which of the following in NOT one of the factors that is important to population growth? a. Immigration b. Emigration c. Death rate d. Demographics 71. Hemoglobin is an important component of blood because it carries . a. carbon dioxide b. nitrogen c. oxygen d. phosphorus 72. Which of the following terms means “toward the back” of the body? a. Superior b. Distal c. Anterior d. Posterior 73. The ventral side of a human would include the . a. back b. ribs c. spine d. gluteus 74. Which of the following is a superficial surface? a. Tendons b. Muscles c. Skin d. Stomach 75. The endocrine system is responsible for . a. the release of anti-inflammatories. b. the release of sugar. c. the storage of sugar. d. the release of hormones. 76. Which statement best describes negative feedback inhibition? a. A substance will increase in production. b. A substance will decrease in production. c. One substance will cause the increase of production. d. All production of a substance is stopped. 77. Hormones act . a. in the same place they are released. b. close to the region they are released. c. on their target tissue wherever that may be. d. none of these. 78. The muscle that is responsible for the increase in the volume of the chest is the . a. pectoralis b. diaphragm c. abdominal muscles d. trapezius 79. Which of the following statements best describes a benign tumor? a. A tumor that is cancerous. b. A tumor that has not spread throughout the body. c. A tumor that has gone through metastasis. d. One that is found only in the brain. 80. The main function of the human skull is to . a. produce stem cells b. serve as a cushion c. protect the brain d. none of these. 81. A human embryo that is just fertilized is known as a . a. zygote b. gastrula c. blastula d. mastula 82. The fetus is given nutrients by the mother through which structure? a. Endometrium b. Uterus c. Fallopian tube d. Placenta 83. Of the following organs, which is not in the abdominal cavity? a. Stomach b. Liver c. Pancreas d. Heart 84. Which system in the human body is associated with the generation of body heat? a. Endocrine b. Muscular c. Respiratory d. Nervous 85. Somatic cells can form from all but which of the following? a. Gametes b. Muscles c. Digestive organs d. Skin TEAS Practice Exam – Science - Section 2 Biology and Genetics 86. The idea that an organism can change over time is known as: a. Artificial Selection b. Natural Selection c. Evolution d. Use and Disuse 87. Who is the scientist known as the “Father of Genetics”? a. Charles Darwin b. Thomas Malthus c. Gregor Mendel d. Barbara McClintock 88. A carrier of a genetic disease is most likely to have which genetic make-up? a. AA b. Aa c. aa d. None of the above. 89. What is the name of the two-word naming system used by scientists? a. Binomial nomenclature b. Binomial naming c. Binary nomenclature d. Binary Fission 90. An animal with the name Lynx rufus and another with the name Lynx Canadensis are most likely from the same . a. Kingdom b. Phylum c. Genus d. Species 91. The correct order of the classification system of organisms from smallest to largest is: a. Kingdom, Phylum, Class, Order, Family, Genus, Species b. Phylum, Kingdom, Class, Family, Order, Genus Species c. Species, Genus, Family, Class, Order, Phylum, Kingdom d. Species, Genus, Family, Order, Class, Phylum, Kingdom 92. Who is responsible for the current naming system of organisms? a. Linneaus b. Lyell c. Lamarck d. Linus 93. The part of an animal cell that creates energy is known as the: a. Mitochondria b. Chloroplast c. Golgi Body d. Nucleus 94. A farmer breeding tomato plants for larger fruit is an example of: a. Natural selection b. Captive breeding c. Selective breeding d. Artificial breeding 95. Which of the following organisms has a true nucleus? a. Bacteria b. Prokaryote c. Archaebacteria d. Eukaryote 96. Which cell part is responsible for taking food and breaking it down into useable components? a. Endoplasmic Reticulum b. Golgi Body c. Lysosome d. Nucleus 97. When a cell moves larger particles or materials into the cell it is called . a. cytosis b. endocytosis c. exocytosis d. pinocytosis 98. When gametes fuse to make offspring, each gamete will contribute . a. one fourth the normal number of chromosomes b. one half the normal number of chromosomes c. three quarters the normal number of chromosomes d. the normal number of chromosomes 99. The organelle that is responsible for the creation of new proteins on molecules that move through the cell is the . a. smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum b. golgi apparatus c. mitochondria d. nucleus 100. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution it will . a. explode b. shrink c. stay the same d. have no net change in or out 101. The main function at the conclusion of mitosis is to have two . a. gametes b. sex cells c. identical cells d. different cells 102. If an organism has a diploid number of 28, at the end of mitosis the organism will have a cell that has chromosomes. a. 14 b. 28 c. 29 d. 56 103. What type cells are produced in meiosis? a. Identical b. Diploid c. Haploid d. Triploid 104. In photosynthesis, a harvests the sun’s light. In cellular respiration, energy is harvested into energy molecules at the . a. chloroplast; mitochondria b. mitochondria; chloroplast c. chloroplast; ribosome d. ribosome; mitochondria 105. The products of cellular respiration are . a. the same as the products of photosynthesis. b. similar to the products of photosynthesis. c. the starting materials for photosynthesis. d. not used in any way during photosynthesis. 106. Cellular respiration is to animals as photosynthesis is to . a. animals b. plants c. bacteria d. viruses 107. Which of the following is the process that is catabolic and breaks down molecules to produce energy? a. Endocytosis b. Endergonic c. Cellular Respiration d. Photosynthesis 108. Which of the following are the two types of nucleic acids found in humans? a. DNA and RNA b. DNA and SNA c. RNA and TNA d. TTRNA and RRDNA 109. A human has chromosomes. a. 23 b. 46 c. 92 d. 120 110. Which of the following is NOT found in DNA? a. Thymine b. Adenine c. Guanine d. Uracil 111. Through which process is DNA copied? a. Transformation b. Transcription c. Replication d. Reduction 112. What bond is responsible for stabilizing the structure of DNA and RNA? a. Hydrogen b. Nitrogen c. Phosphate d. Helium 113. Which of the following is the main function of RNA? a. Cell detoxification b. Protein synthesis c. Cellular respiration d. Cell growth 114. If a DNA sequence is changed from TAC CAG GAC to TAC GAG GAC it is considered a . a. chromosomal aberration b. point mutation c. frame shift mutation d. substitution mutation 115. The most common time for a mutation in the DNA to take place is during the process of . a. replication b. regeneration c. translation d. translocation 116. What mutation of meiosis can result in an abnormal chromosome number in offspring? a. Replication b. Translation c. Non-disjunction d. Frame shift 117. Which of the following is a disease that is commonly caused by a DNA mutation? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Lupus c. Alzheimer’s d. Cystic Fibrosis 118. If the DNA code of an organism is A T T C C G, what is the corresponding code on the opposing strand of DNA? a. T A A G G C b. A T T C C G c. U A A G G C d. A U U C C G 119. If the DNA code of organisms is T G C A A G C, what would the corresponding mRNA code be? a. A C G T T C G b. A C G U U C G c. T G C A A G C d. A C G A A C G 120. What role does DNA play in the S phase of the cell cycle? a. DNA condenses to become as small as possible for replication. b. DNA must uncoil and be copied. c. DNA remains unchanged. d. DNA is converted to RNA. 121. At the conclusion of DNA replication there are two DNA strands where . a. both have two new strands b. they each have original strands only c. one has a new strand, the other is the original d. they each have two new strands and two original strands 122. RNA contains which sugar as its main structure? a. Deoxyribose b. Glucose c. Ribose d. Sucrose 123. What do the genes in DNA provide the instructions for? a. Proteins b. Phosphates c. RNA d. Carbohydrates 124. Which of the following can be considered the phenotype of a polar bear? a. Its genetic make-up. b. Its DNA code. c. The number of offspring it produces. d. The color of its fur. Use the following Punnett Square in questions 125 through 127. T t T t T = allele for tall; t = allele for short 125. What is the genotype of a short statured individual? a. TT b. Tt c. tt d. Cannot be determined. 126. What is the probability that the parents will produce tall offspring? a. 10% b. 25% c. 50% d. 75% 127. What is the genotype of an individual who is heterozygous for tallness? a. TT b. Tt c. tt d. Cannot be determined. 128. Which individual in genetics can also be considered a “carrier” of a trait? a. Autozygous b. Homozygous c. Heterozygous d. Recessive 129. What is the difference between a gene and a chromosome? a. A chromosome holds the all the DNA and a gene is within the chromosome. b. A gene holds all the DNA and the chromosome is within the gene. c. Genes are only part of some chromosomes. d. Genes and chromosomes are unrelated. 130. A cell is found to have no nucleus, some chloroplasts and circular DNA. It is most likely a . a. Plant b. Animal c. Protist d. Bacteria 131. When two gametes fuse, what name is given to the fertilized union of cells? a. Gastrula b. Blastula c. Zygote d. Egg 132. All of the following are embryonic germ layers of a differentiating embryo EXCEPT: a. Blastoderm b. Ectoderm c. Mesoderm d. Endoderm 133. What process occurs between the blastula and gastrula stage of an embryo? a. Blastulation b. Zygolation c. Gastrulation d. None of these. 134. The chromosomes of a cell will line up during which phase of mitosis? a. Interphase b. Prophase c. Metaphase d. Anaphase 135. What is the resting phase of the cell cycle known as? a. Telophase b. Prophase c. Interphase d. Metaphase 136. Chromosomes become visible for the first time during which phase of mitosis? a. Prophase b. Anaphase c. Metaphase d. Telophase 137. What is the correct reaction for photosynthesis? a. Water + Carbon dioxide  Oxygen + Nitrogen b. Oxygen + Carbon dioxide  Sugar + Water c. Carbon dioxide + Water  Sugar and Oxygen d. Sugar + Oxygen  Carbon dioxide + Water 138. What event in meiosis occurs when two chromosomes that are close to each other exchange pieces of genetic material? a. Manipulation b. Crossing over c. Replication d. Translation 139. Which of the following best describes the structure of DNA? a. Double helix b. Helix c. Tetragon d. Octagon 140. If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, what will happen? a. It will grow. b. It will burst. c. It will shrink. d. It will stay the same. 141. Proteins are created in a process known as . a. translocation b. replication c. translation d. crossing-over 142. Which of the following is NOT a major macromolecule of life? a. Carbohydrates b. Lipids c. Protein d. Oxygen 143. How many chromosomes are in a human gamete? a. 12 b. 23 c. 46 d. 92 144. Which disease listed below is the result of a translocation? a. Cystic Fibrosis b. Tay Sachs c. Down’s Syndrome d. Huntington’s Disease 145. Hemophilia is an example of a . a. point mutation b. sex linked gene c. crossing over d. latent gene 146. The Human Genome project is an effort to . a. understand which genes are linked to which traits b. an effort to sequence the genome of humans c. a great undertaking that will advance medical science d. All of the above. 147. The actual splitting of an animal cell in mitosis is known as: a. Cytokinesis b. Telophase c. Plating d. Phagocytosis 148. There are 200 maple trees per square kilometer in a certain part of an Appalachian forest. What population characteristic does this information refer to? a. Growth Rate b. Pyramid of Birth Rates c. Population Density d. Immigration 149. When an organism moves out of a population it is known as: a. Immigration b. Emigration c. Density d. Succession 150. What are the factors that must happen for a population to grow? a. The birth rate and the death rate stay the same. b. The birth rate gets lower than the death rate. c. The birth rate can stay the same and the death rate must increase. d. The birthrate gets higher than the death rate. 151. Population growth that explodes is said to be increasing . a. logistically b. intermittently c. exponentially d. integrally Use the following diagram to answer question 152 and 153. 152. What type of growth is occurring between A and B? a. Logistical b. Exponential c. Regulatory d. Integral 153. Point B on the graph above is best known as . a. Carrying capacity b. Plateau threshold c. No growth phase d. None of these 154. A resource in an ecosystem that can cause a population to decrease is known as a . a. limiting nutrient b. limiting factor c. limiting reagent d. None of these 155. What is one factor that can reduce competition in a population? a. Less resources b. Less individuals c. More population density d. More births 156. The clutch size (number of eggs laid) of birds is directly dependent upon the availability of food and resources for the bird. The more plentiful and rich the environment is; the more eggs the bird will lay. During periods of drought or food shortage there will be less eggs. Why would the clutch size decrease during a food shortage? a. The is not enough food for the mother bird to function. b. The mother can pick up on environmental cues that will lower her clutch size. c. The bird is too young for a large clutch. d. None of the above. 157. Which of the following scenarios is not a man-made cause of population decrease? a. Disease b. Pollution c. Earthquake d. War TEAS Practice Exam – Science - Section 3 Chemistry Use the reaction below to answer questions 158 – 160. H2O2 (l)  H2 (g) + O2 (g) 158. What are the reactants of this reaction? a. H₂ and H₂O₂ b. H₂ only c. H₂O₂ only d. H₂ and O₂ 159. In order to balance this equation, you must : a. add a coefficient of 2 before the H₂O₂ b. add a coefficient of 2 before the O₂ c. add a coefficient of 2 before the H₂ and the O₂ d. add nothing, it is balanced already 160. The type of reaction shown in the equation above is known as a: a. Single replacement b. Double replacement c. Decomposition d. Synthesis 161. The nucleus of an atom is composed of which of the following? a. Protons and electrons b. Neutrons and electrons c. Protons and neutrons d. Protons only. 162. The majority of energy for most organisms comes from which molecules? a. ATP b. NADH c. NADPH d. FADH₂ 163. The electrons that are available to create bonds with other elements are electrons. a. inner b. extraneous c. valance d. covalent 164. What does one need to do in order to balance the reaction Ca2 + Cl2  CaCl2? a. Place a coefficient of 2 before the Cl in the reactants and before the CaCl2 in the products. b. Place a coefficient of 2 before the Ca in the reactants and before the CaCl2 in the products. c. Place a coefficient of 2 before the Cl in the reactants. d. The reaction is already balanced. 165. When an acid is in water, how is it different than a base? a. Acids form hydroxide ions (OH-) and bases form hydrogen ions (H+). b. Acids form hydrogen ions (H+) and bases form hydroxide ions (OH-) c. Acids and bases both form hydrogen ions (H+) based on their concentration. d. Neither acids nor bases form any ions in water solutions. 166. What does the pH scale measure? a. The strength of a base. b. The strength of an acid. c. The concentration of hydroxide ions. d. The concentration of hydrogen ions. 167. If an atom is oxidized in a redox reaction, what must happen to the other one in the reaction? a. It is reduced. b. It is enhanced c. It is also oxidized. d. It is neutralized. 168. Which of the following is a substance that has the ability to speed up a chemical reaction? a. An accelerant b. A catalyst c. A protein d. A reactant Use the illustration below for questions 169 - 171. 169. What letter best represents activation energy in the diagram above? a. A b. B c. C d. D 170. What letter shows where the product is formed in the reaction? a. A b. B c. C d. D 171. The letter the represents the amount of energy that the entire reaction would need to proceed is letter . a. A b. B c. C d. D 172. Enzymes are considered to be . a. biological steroids b. biological catalysts c. inhibitors d. enhancers 173. Enzymes are made up of what substance? a. Lipids b. Carbohydrates c. Proteins d. Sugars Use the following diagram of a pH scale for questions 174 – 176. 174. Which of the following would be considered a strong acid? a. Bleach b. Water c. Vinegar d. Gastric Juice 175. Which substance in the diagram above is considered neutral? a. Bleach b. Water c. Vinegar d. Gastric Juice 176. A weak acid would have a number of: a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9 177. Which of the following terms best describes a water molecule? a. Hydrophobic b. Hydrophilic c. Dipole d. Magnetic Use the following diagram for question 178. 178. What type of bond forms between the hydrogen and oxygen that are indicated in red dashes in the picture above? a. Oxygen bonds b. Hydrophobic interactions c. Van der Waals interactions d. Hydrogen bonds 179. The affinity that water has for bonding with itself is known as: a. Hydrophobic interactions b. Surface Affinity c. Surface Tension d. Adhesion 180. Water has which of the properties listed below? I. High surface Tension II. High boiling point III. Cohesion a. I and II b. I and III c. II and III d. I, II and III 181. Why does water have a tendency to crawl up a straw with capillary action? a. adhesion b. cohesion c. adhesion and cohesion d. none of these 182. What are weak hydrostatic attractions known as? a. Van der Waals forces b. Ionic bonds c. Covalent bonds d. Hydrogen bonds 183. A bond between two elements that share a pair of electrons is known as: a. Van der Waals b. Ionic Bonds c. Covalent Bonds d. Hydrogen Bonds 184. Calcium chloride is an ionic compound with a formula of CaCl2. What does the 2 represent in this chemical formula? a. Chloride has a 2+ charge b. There are two calcium ions to every chloride ion. c. There are two chlorine ions for every calcium ion. d. Chlorine has a 2- charge. 185. The type of bond that forms in water between hydrogen and oxygen atoms is known as . a. Van der Waals b. ionic bonds c. covalent bonds d. hydrogen bonds 186. Which of the following describes the energy of motion? a. Potential energy b. Reactive energy c. Kinetic energy d. Electrical energy 187. A large waterfall is a good example of . a. potential energy b. kinetic energy c. potential energy that is converted into kinetic energy d. kinetic energy that is converted into potential energy Use the diagram below to answer questions 188 and 189. Imagine the circles represent a ball rolling from the top of a ledge, down and back up a hill from 1 to 4. 188. Which ball represents potential energy? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 189. Which balls represent kinetic energy? a. 1, 2, 3 b. 2, 3, 4 c. 2, 4 d. 1, 4 190. The number of protons + neutrons is equal to which of the following? a. Number of electrons b. Atomic mass c. Atomic number d. Charge of the element 191. If an element has 12 protons, and a mass number of 22, how many neutrons does the element have? a. 10 b. 12 c. 22 d. 34 192. The charge of an element is determined by which of the following? a. The mass number b. The atomic number c. Electron configuration d. The number of protons 193. If an atom loses an electron, it will become a . a. neutrally charged ion b. positively charged ion. c. negatively charged ion. d. neutrally charged atom. Use the following diagram for questions 195 and 195. A 194. What subatomic particle(s) would be found in location A in the diagram above? a. Protons b. Protons and neutrons c. Electrons d. Neutrons and electrons 195. What is the term that best describes B? a. Charge mass b. Nucleus c. Protons d. None of these 196. The atomic mass of an atom is determined by taking the . a. average of the protons and neutrons. b. average of all the naturally occurring isotopes. c. the mass of the most commonly found isotope. d. the mass of the very first sample of the element. 197. What is a single bond? a. A bond with one atom. b. One pair of electrons that are shared between two atoms. c. Two pairs of electrons that are shared between two atoms. d. Three pairs of electrons shared between two atoms. 198. The type of bond that forms between oppositely charged ions is known as a(n): a. Ionic bond. b. Covalent bond. c. Hydrogen bond d. Electrostatic bond 199. Elements in the periodic table that do not form bonds with other elements are known as: a. Metalloids b. Noble gases c. Radioactive d. Non-Metals 200. The majority of the non-metals are found of the Periodic Table of the Elements. a. in the column on the farthest right at the end b. on the left side c. on the right side (excluding the last column on the right) d. in the middle 201. What are the elements on the Periodic Table of the Elements that have characteristics of both metals and nonmetals? a. Noble gases b. Halogens c. Alloys d. Metalloids Use the Periodic Table of the Elements for questions 202 – 204. 202. Which of the following in the periodic table of the elements are halogens? a. H, F, Cl, Br, S b. F, Cl, Br, I c. O, F, Cl, I d. N, O, F, Cl 203. What is the chemical symbol for silver? a. Ag b. Au c. Si d. Sn 204. The current periodic table above is arranged in order of increasing atomic . a. radius b. mass c. charge d. number Use the following diagram for questions 205 – 207. 205. Which picture best represents a solid? a. A b. B c. C d. None of these. 206. Which picture represents a liquid? a. A b. B c. C d. None of these 207. Which picture represents a substance that takes the shape and volume of its container? a. A b. B c. C d. None of these 208. The ability of molecules to form a crystal lattice occurs in which of the following? a. Gases b. Solids c. Liquids d. Condensation 209. A mixture of oil and water would be considered a . a. homogeneous mixture b. heterogeneous mixture c. colloid d. suspension 210. A scientist wishes to separate salt water into its two main components. The best way to accomplish this would be through the use of . a. condensation b. filtration c. centrifuge d. distillation 211. Aluminum, found in group 3A, will typically form which type of ion? a. Al5- b. Al5+ c. Al3- d. Al3+ 212. What is 120C in Kelvin? a. -153 K b. 120 K c. 393 K d. 420 K 213. Which of the following is the basic metric unit of volume? a. Meter b. Liter c. Gram d. Ounce 214. What is the mass (in grams) of 6.3 mol of H2O2? a. 5.39 g b. 10.2 g c. 120.3 g d. 214.2 g 215. Which of the following can be considered an empirical formula? a. C₂H₄ b. CH c. C₄H₈ d. C₃H₄ 216. Which of the following cannot be found on the periodic table? a. Iodine b. Tin c. Calcium chloride d. Hydrogen TEAS Practice Exam – Science - Section 4 Physics 217. A truck travels 40 meters south in 10 seconds. Then the truck turns around and travels 30 meters north in 3.0 seconds. What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the truck in this 13 second interval? a. 0.77 m/s b. 1.3 m/s c. 3.07 m/s d. 130 m/s 218. When an object resists a change in motion it is known as . a. mass b. homeostasis c. inertia d. velocity 219. Speed is equivalent to the distance divided by . a. motion b. velocity c. size d. time 220. Motion is best demonstrated on a graph when it is plotted against . a. direction b. time c. speed d. vector 221. If a man on a bicycle is travelling 60 kilometers in 3 hours, the man has an average speed of . a. 10 km/h b. 20 km/h c. 60 km/h d. 180 km/h 222. It is unusual for any type of motion to . a. change very fast b. decrease in the amount of speed c. increase in the velocity d. stay exactly the same for a long time 223. If you exert a force of 30 newtons to push a table 5 meters, how much work have you done to push the table? a. 5 joules b. 25 joules c. 35 joules d. 150 joules 224. If a person wishes to do work on an object, they must exert a force that . a. is the maximum amount of force that the person can do b. is in the opposite direction from the force of gravity c. goes in the direction of the motion of the object d. is equal to the force of friction 225. Why does rubbing your hands together when it is cold help to warm up your hands? a. You are generating work that produces heat. b. You are generating friction that produces heat. c. You are causing an endothermic reaction. d. You are causing motion to create work. 226. What category of energy does visible light fall into? a. Nuclear energy. b. Electrical energy. c. Electromagnetic energy. d. Chemical energy. 227. What is the difference between mass and weight? a. Mass takes into account the force of gravity. b. Weight takes into account the force of gravity. c. Mass and weight are interchangeable. d. Mass and weight are exactly the same quantity. 228. An ice skater performing a spin would be demonstrating . a. centripetal force b. centrifugal force c. friction d. inertia 229. A rocket lifting off from the ground and propelling into space is best explained by: a. Newton’s first law of motion. b. Newton’s second law of motion. c. Newton’s third law of motion. d. The law of conservation of energy. 230. The point at which there can be no more energy removed from any matter is . a. 273 K b. 0C c. 32F d. absolute zero 231. Heat that is transferred from one source of matter to another without any additional movement of the matter is a process known as . a. condensation b. convection c. conduction d. radiation 232. The temperature that changes a solid into a liquid is called the . a. the freezing point b. the melting point c. the boiling point d. the absolute zero point 233. Which substance listed below is a good conductor of electricity? a. Aluminum b. Radon c. Helium d. Neon 234. Which statement is true about gases? a. Gas particles are packed together in a fixed position and cannot move. b. Gases have a definite shape. c. Gases have a definite volume. d. Gases can expand to fill all of the space that they are contained within. 235. Which of the following units is a unit of pressure? a. Pascal b. Pound c. Meter d. Joule 236. The pressure of water increases as . a. wave height increases b. depth increases c. force decreases d. gravity decreases 237. Pascal’s principle deals with what substance? a. Gasses b. Solids c. Liquids d. Powders 238. Smoke from a chimney rises up because of . a. Newton’s second law of motion b. Pascal’s theory c. Bernoulli’s principle d. Boyle’s Law 239. When magnetic poles are alike they . a. have the same force b. do not interact c. attract one another d. repel one another 240. What is a neutron? a. A particle that has a negative charge and no mass. b. A particle that has no charge and no mass. c. A particle that has no charge and mass. d. A particle that has a positive charge and mass. 241. All magnets, no matter the shape or size, have two . a. magnetic fields b. magnetic poles c. magnetic domains d. magnetic patterns 242. The frequency of a wave is known as . a. the distance of the wave from peak to peak b. the number of waves that pass a fixed place in a given amount of time c. the number of peaks per minute d. the size of the wave 243. The highest part of any wave is known as the . a. trough b. crest c. node d. wavelength 244. A compass moves and shows direction because of . a. the Earth’s gravity b. the Earth’s unique shape c. the Earth’s equator d. the Earth’s magnetic field 245. The speed of sound is dependent on . a. the pitch of the sound b. the loudness of the sound c. the direction of the sound d. the properties of the substance the sound travels through 246. Sonograms are used by doctors to visualize internal parts of the human body. What type of waves are used in sonograms? a. infrared b. ultrasound c. sonar d. ultraviolet TEAS Practice Exam – Science - Section 5 Scientific Method and Reasoning 247. Why is the Latin language used in the current scientific naming system? a. The system is very old and Latin was used at the time. b. Latin is a dead language that will not change. c. Latin is easier to understand. d. The scientific community insists upon Latin because it is the language of science. 248. A scientist has collected a small amount of liquid as a result of an experiment. He needs to measure the volume as accurately and precisely as possible. The best tool to use is: a. A volumetric flask b. A volumetric pipette c. A graduated cylinder d. A triple beam balance 249. Researchers want to measure and compare the weight of horses placed on various grain diets. Which is the most appropriate unit to measure the weight (mass)? a. Grams b. Milligrams c. Kilograms d. Liters 250. What does the prefix milli mean? a. 0.01 b. 0.001 c. one thousand d. 10 251. If a scientist is looking through a microscope and the ocular lenses magnify by 5X and the objective lens is on 10X, what is the total magnification of that microscope? a. 5X b. 10X c. 15X d. 50X 252. The metric system is also known as the . a. Universal System (US) b. System International (SI) c. Scientific System (SS) d. None of these answers are correct. 253. A will dissolve a . a. solute; solvent b. solvent; solute c. mixture; solute d. solute; mixture 254. Scientists frequently begin their work by . a. observing the world around them b. testing their hypothesis c. designing experiments d. creating theories 255. What is the role of a control in a well-conceived experiment? a. To rule out competing hypothesis. b. To compare treated and untreated subjects. c. To compare a theory and a conclusion. d. Unnecessary if the hypothesis is well thought out. 256. When information is gathered about the growth of a baby chick over a two-week period, it is considered to be . a. a theory b. an independent variable c. a dependent variable d. data 257. A controlled experiment can only test . a. one hypothesis at a time b. one theory at a time c. one variable at a time d. one control at a time 258. A well supported hypothesis that has been verified by an experiment will go on to become a . a. law b. theory c. thesis d. idea 259. A theory can never be proven untrue. a. True b. False 260. Plants require carbon dioxide to grow. A researcher predicts that plants raised in a high carbon dioxide environment will grow faster than those raised in a normal atmosphere. This prediction corresponds to: a. Formulating a hypothesis b. Conducting an experiment c. Analyzing the results d. Drawing a conclusion Use the scenario below for questions 261- 265. A scientist tests the effect of a mineral supplement on the growth of plants. Over the course of 2 weeks 4 plants receive the supplement once a day in water and their growth rate is measured. The following data are collected: Plant # Initial Growth Rate Final Growth Rate 1 2 cm / day 4 cm/day 2 3 cm/day 5 cm/day 3 2 cm/day 3 cm/day 4 4 cm/day 8 cm/day 261. What is the hypothesis in this experiment? a. Plants need minerals to grow faster. b. Adding a mineral supplement will cause plants to grow faster. c. Minerals need to be dissolved in water to be used by plants. d. There is no hypothesis. 262. What conclusion can be drawn from the data? a. Growth rate increased for all the plants studied. b. The mineral supplement increases the growth rate of plants. c. Plants require the mineral supplement for normal growth. d. No conclusion can be drawn from the data. 263. What is one limitation of experimental design in this experiment? a. Some plants grew at a faster rate than others. b. There is no control. c. There is no hypothesis. d. There is no dependent variable 264. In this experiment, identify the independent variable. a. The type of plant used in the study b. The growth rate of the plants c. The amount of water used d. The mineral supplement added to the water 265. One of the most important qualities of an experiment that demonstrates a theory is that is must be . a. verifiable b. quantifiable c. reproducible d. justifiable Use the scenario below for questions 266- 268. Michael claims to have a muscle cream that will triple a person’s muscle power when used with a workout. Michael asks his friends James and Scott to try it out. They lift weights over a two-week period to determine if the muscle cream really works. Before each work out session, the cream is applied to both of Scott’s arms and his back. James puts nothing on his body before his work out. Time Scott (Muscle Mass) James (Muscle Mass) Initial 14 6 After 1 week 28 10 After 2 weeks 44 18 266. What or who is the control group in the experiment? a. Scott b. James c. Weight lifting d. The control group is not listed here. 267. The independent variable in the experiment above would be . a. muscle cream b. no muscle cream c. the amount of weights used d. the muscle mass gained 268. What is the dependent variable in the experiment? a. muscle cream b. no muscle cream c. the amount of weights used d. the muscle mass gained Use the information below to answer questions 269 and 270. A student is doing a field study on the types of butterflies in a meadow. She observes 10 orange, 4 blue and 5 yellow butterflies. She noticed the largest butterflies were the orange ones, that were about two inches larger than all of the other colors. 269. An example of quantitative data in the experiment is . a. 10 orange butterflies b. Orange butterflies c. Blue butterflies d. Yellow butterflies e. All of the above. 270. A reasonable hypothesis that could arise from this student’s observations could be: a. blue butterflies are not good at reproducing. b. yellow butterflies and blue butterflies are not well suited to their habitat. c. orange butterflies are more successful in their environment than the yellow and blue butterflies. d. None of these statements represents a reasonable hypothesis. 271. The first step in any scientific process is to analyze the data that is present. a. True b. False 272. Observations that deal with descriptions and non-numerical data are called . a. quantitative data b. qualitative data c. classification data d. manipulated data 273. What would be a very good reason for a scientist to reject a theory? a. It causes outrage and many oppose it. b. It doesn’t seem even possible. c. New evidence from other experiments contradicts it. d. It is very old. Use the information below to answer questions 274 and 275. A student decides to test a fertilizer to see if it will make plants grow larger. She labels two flower pots Group A and Group B. Both plants are given the same amount of water, same amount of soil and sunlight. Group A is given fertilizer and Group B is not. The heights of the plants were measured at 1 week and at 2 weeks. Group A grew 2 inches after 1 week and 3 inches after 2 weeks. Group B grew 1 inch after 1 week and 2 inches after 2 weeks. 274. The control in this experiment is . a. plant in Group A b. plant in Group B c. the height of the plants d. the time measured 275. The manipulated variable in this experiment is . a. plant in Group A. b. plant in Group B. c. the height of the plants. d. the fertilizer put on the plant in Group A. 276. A study was conducted using two groups of 10 plants of the same species. During the study, the plants were placed in identical environments. The plants in one group were given a growth solution every 3 days. The heights of the plants in both groups were recorded at the beginning of the study and at the end of a 3-week period. The data showed that the plants given the growth solution grew faster than those not given the solution. When other researchers conducted this study to test the accuracy of the results, they should . a. give the growth solutions to both of the groups b. increase the amount of light that is given to the plants c. be sure to create conditions identical to those in the original study d. double the amount of growth solution given to the plants 277. Researchers performing a well-designed experiment should base their conclusions on which of the following? a. The hypothesis they created. b. Data that has come from repeated trials of an experiment c. A very small sample size to ensure a result. d. Results that are predicted based on the scientist’s knowledge. 278. A scientist is planning to carry out an experiment on the effect of heat on the function of a certain type of enzyme. Which of the following would NOT be an appropriate first step? a. Conducting research in a lab. b. Collaborating with other scientists about the experiment. c. Using information that is available about enzymes to hypothesize. d. Completing a data sheet with predicted results. 279. It important to analyze data gathered during an experiment because . a. a scientist needs to draw a valid conclusion from the data of an experiment b. a scientist cannot draw a hypothesis without data analysis c. a scientist cannot draw a research plan without data analysis d. a scientist cannot figure out the control of the experiment 280. A student created a hypothesis that stated that bean seeds would not sprout unless they were exposed to a period of darkness. The student planted 10 bean seeds under a layer of soil and placed 10 bean seeds on the surface of the soil. The data that resulted is below. Seed Treatment Number Seeds Germinated Planted under soil 12 Placed on top of soil 9 One way to make this experiment more valid would be to . a. change the type of seeds b. change the type of lighting c. redesign the hypothesis d. repeat the experiment 281. An experiment that a student is conducting includes references, materials, equipment and a procedure. What else should be included in the experiment before it is performed? a. Data b. A sound conclusion based on the data. c. The safety information and precautions that are needed to perform the lab. d. A theory based on prior experiments. 282. What is the dependent variable in the experiment summarized in the graph below? a. % activity of trypsin b. pH c. Time d. Graph height 283. A student observes that an unknown organism is yellow. A reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from this observation is that: a. The organism may be a plant b. The organism may be a fungus c. The organism may be an animal d. There is not enough information for the student to determine this without further experimentation. 284. Models help scientists view data from an experiment in a new way when analyzing information. a. True b. False 285. A student created a hypothesis that tomatoes will grow larger if magnesium is added to the soil. The student has two plots of tomatoes, one with magnesium and one without magnesium. What data needs to be collected in order to support this hypothesis? a. Overall height of the tomato plants. b. The diameter of the tomato plants. c. The color of the tomatoes. d. The length of the leaves of the plants. 286. A scientist reported that he had successfully bred a cat and a dog with healthy offspring produced. Other scientists will only accept this report as true fact if: a. Research demonstrates that these animals can really be bred. b. The offspring are given true scientific names. c. Other scientists can duplicate the results. d. The scientists demonstrate proper controls were used in the experiment. 287. Why is there a need for a universal system of measurement, like the metric system, for science? a. It makes it easier to calculate results. b. It is easy to convert units because it is based on the number 10. c. It prevents confusion when scientists share information. d. It makes it easier to figure out the calculations. 288. The closeness of a measurement to its true value is known as . a. accuracy b. precision c. metric d. significant 289. You measure a block of wood three times and get values of 20.1 cm, 20.2 cm and 20.0 cm. What can be said about the measurements that you took? a. They are accurate but not precise. b. They are precise but not accurate. c. They are both accurate and precise. d. They are neither accurate nor precise. 290. If a scientist wishes to determine how close the true value is to their calculations they would determine the . a. percent accuracy b. percent precision c. percent error d. percent significance 291. What type of activity is a person engaged in when forecasting a lunar eclipse? a. Classifying b. Interpreting c. Predicting d. Observing 292. Scientists will use which of the following to see trends in their data after an experiment? a. Pictures b. Data tables c. Calculations d. All of the above. 293. One mathematical tool that scientists can use to interpret data that may show hidden trends is . a. graphs b. variables c. scientific notation d. significant figures 294. When a theory has been validated for many years and well accepted, it becomes a law. a. True b. False 295. Mary suggests that moist, warm conditions accelerate the growth of bread mold. This is an example of a . a. inquiry b. hypothesis c. experiment d. data 296. The correct sequence of logic to create a theory is: a. Observation, experiment, hypothesis, theory b. Experiment, observation, hypothesis, theory c. Hypothesis, observation, experiment, theory d. Observation, hypothesis, experiment, theory 297. The current knowledge concerning cells is the result of the investigations and observations of many scientists. The work of these scientists forms a well-accepted body of knowledge about cells. This body of knowledge is an example of . a. a controlled experiment. b. a research plan. c. a hypothesis. d. a theory. 298. A scientist tested a hypothesis that antelope would prefer pears over corn meal as their main food staple. The results of the test demonstrate that the antelope would prefer pears over corn meal. These results were published. Which research technique, if used by scientists, could result in the questioning of this claim? a. The scientist observed a total of 300 antelope in 10 different locations at many times of the day. b. The scientist observed 100 antelope in several native settings, but none in captivity. c. The scientist observed 6 antelope in different locations at many times of the day. d. None of the above. 299. A scientist is investigating the effect of varying environmental conditions on the growth of a specific species of corn over 60 days. Which of these factors can NOT function as a variable in this experiment? a. The amount of moisture in the soil. b. The amount of light the plants received. c. The temperature over the time period. d. The specific species of the corn plant. Use the scenario below for questions 300-302. A lab is testing to see if a drug for curing diabetes works well. Ten patients who have mild diabetes are being studied to see if the drug helps them produce insulin. Five of the patients are being given a new drug. The others are being given a sugar pill that looks identical to the pill the other group is taking and they are not aware they are given only a sugar pill. 300. The sugar pill in the experiment is known as a . a. placebo b. control c. variable d. dependent variable 301. The manipulated variable in the experiment is: a. The production of insulin. b. The sugar pill. c. The new drug. d. None of the above. 302. The control group in this experiment is: a. The group that produces insulin. b. The group that receives the sugar pill. c. The group that receives the new drug. d. None of these choices. 303. When a test tube of water containing eloda is placed under a bright light, the plant emits gas bubbles. When the light is placed at varying distances from the plant, the amount of bubbles given off changes. The experimental variable in this demonstration is the . a. amount of gas given off in the water. b. the distance from the light source c. the specific type of aquatic plant. d. the amount of water in the test tube. 304. In an experiment, what should be the relationship between the control group and the experimental group? a. They should be different in size. b. They should resemble each other in at least two respects. c. They should not be similar in any respect. d. They should be identical in every way but one. 305. A theory is a (n) . a. suggested explanation for an observation b. summary of data of many observations c. experiment used to test a hypothesis d. well-tested explanation for various observations 306. Which of the steps listed below must always be followed for a scientific problem to be solved? a. Performing perfect metric conversions. b. Creating a well thought out plan and then executing that plan. c. Using a trial an error method when solving problems. d. Using the research of other scientists to determine future outcomes. 307. The step of scientific reasoning that usually comes last in mathematical problem solving is . a. calculations b. measurements c. evaluation d. analysis 308. There can be multiple variables in an experiment providing the researcher can keep track of how everything is organized. a. True b. False TEAS VI Practice Exam – Science Answers with Explanations 1. b - The cell is the basic building block of all living things. Cells are organized into tissues having specialized properties and functions. Tissues are further organized into organs (and organ systems). 2. c - The science of anatomy requires special terms that must be used consistently. Because the human body is a 3-dimensional object, standard anatomical descriptions and landmarks are made using a consistent reference point. That reference point is the “anatomical position” – the subject is standing, feet together, arms at side, with palms facing forward. This isolates the body in 3- dimensional space so that anatomical structures can be precisely named and located. 3. b - All directional terms use the anatomical position as the standard point of reference. The term “distal” refers to a structure that is located away from a base structure – for example, the hand is distal to the elbow. 4. a - Anatomical structures can be sectioned in various planes. The sagittal section divides structures along a vertical (superior to inferior) axis. 5. b - The epiglottis is a fold of cartilaginous tissue located above the glottis in the pharynx. During normal swallowing the larynx moves upward and the epiglottis folds over the glottis. This prevents substances from entering the respiratory system. 6. c - Foreign objects, including food, can become lodged in the larynx or trachea (windpipe). These can often be expelled by coughing. If the person can speak or make sounds, the airway is open and there is no emergency. If the person cannot breathe or speak, there is an immediate threat of death by asphyxiation and emergency measures are needed. The Heimlich maneuver is the correct first emergency remedial action to take. 7. a - The image shows alveolar sacs composed of individual alveoli. Respiratory bronchioles bring air to the alveoli, which are surrounded by capillaries. Gas exchange occurs at this junction. 8. d - Arteries carry blood away from the heart. The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart toward the lungs. It is the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood. 9. b - The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle of the heart. The tricuspid valve is between the right atrium and right ventricle. 10. c - When the body is exposed to prolonged heat, more blood is shunted to superficial veins in order to lower body temperature. This results in decreased venous return to the heart. The resulting lowered cardiac output causes less oxygenated blood to reach the brain, causing dizziness and fainting. 11. c - The lining of the small intestine is folded into a series of highly vascularized fingerlike projections called villi. This increases the surface area of the small intestine for more efficient absorption of nutrients. 12. a - The digestive tract contains a smooth muscle cell layer (the muscularis externa) having no motor innervation. Pacemaker cells located throughout the digestive tract send signals to the muscularis externa. This causes rhythmic waves of muscular contraction and propels material through the digestive tract. 13. b -The hepatic duct transports bile secreted in the liver into the gall bladder. The gall bladder stores and concentrates bile. The bile duct releases bile from the gall bladder into the small intestine. 14. c - Skeletal muscles are reddish because they contain the red pigment myoglobin. Myoglobin is a globular protein similar to hemoglobin, the pigment in red blood cells that transports oxygen. Myoglobin also binds oxygen, making it available to skeletal muscles during muscle contraction. 15. a - Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter released by motor neurons at the neuromuscular junction. It causes a chain of reactions resulting in muscle contraction and the maintenance of muscle tone. Since muscle tone is necessary to remain standing, injection of a substan