All pathology Quizzes test bank Nursing 275

All pathology Quizzes test bank Nursing 275 Week7 QUESTION 1 1. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult? 2. 3.a. 4. An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s. 5. 6.b. 7. An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s. 8. 9.c. 10. An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s. 11. 12. d. 13. An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s. QUESTION 2 1. Why is nasal congestion a serious threat to young infants? 2. 3.a. 4. Their noses are small in diameter. 5. 6.b. 7. Their epiglottis is proportionally greater than the epiglottis of an adult’s. 8. 9.c. 10. Infants are obligatory nose breathers. 11. 12. d. 13. Infants become dehydrated when mouth breathing. 1 points QUESTION 3 1. Which criterion is used to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child? 1 points 2. 3. a. 4. Serum testing that confirms increased immunoglobulin E (IgE) and eosinophil levels 5. 6. b. 7. Reduced expiratory flow rates confirmed by spirometry testing 8. 9. c. 10. Parental history of asthma 11. 12. d. 13. Improvement on a trial of asthma medication 1 points QUESTION 4 1. Besides dyspnea, what is the most common characteristic associated with pulmonary disease? 2. 3.a. 4. Cough 5. 6.b. 7. Chest pain 8. 9.c. 10. Hemoptysis 11. 12. d. 13. Digit clubbing 1 points QUESTION 5 1. Sitting up in a forward-leaning position generally relieves which breathing disorder? 2. 3.a. 4. Hyperpnea 5. 6.b. 7. Dyspnea on exertion 8. 9.c. 10. Orthopnea 11. 12. d. 13. Apnea 1 points QUESTION 6 1. Which immunoglobulin (Ig) may contribute to the pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma? 2. 3.a. 4. IgA 5. 6.b. 7. IgG 8. 9.c. 10. IgE 11. 12. d. 13. IgM 1 points QUESTION 7 1. Which statement about the late asthmatic response is true? 2. 3. a. 4. The release of epinephrine causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and increases capillary permeability. 5. 6. b. 7. Norepinephrine causes bronchial smooth muscle contraction and mucus secretion. 8. 9. c. 10. The release of toxic neuropeptides contributes to increased bronchial hyperresponsiveness. 11.12. d. 13. Immunoglobulin G initiates the complement cascade and causes smooth muscle contraction and increased capillary permeability. 1 points QUESTION 8 1. Which of the following is the most common route of lower respiratory tract infection? 2. 3.a. 4. Inhalation of microorganisms 5. 6.b. 7. Microorganisms spread to the lung via blood 8. 9.c. 10. Poor mucous membrane protection 11. 12. d. 13. Aspiration of oropharyngeal secretions 1 points QUESTION 9 1. Clinical manifestations of inspiratory crackles, increased tactile fremitus, egophony, and whispered pectoriloquy are indicative of which respiratory condition? 2. 3.a. 4. Chronic bronchitis 5. 6.b. 7. Pneumonia 8. 9.c. 10. Asthma 11. 12. d. 13. Emphysema 1 points QUESTION 10 1. Squamous cell carcinoma of the lung is best described as a tumor that causes which alterations? 2. 3.a. 4. Airway obstruction and atelectasis 5. 6.b. 7. Abscesses and ectopic hormone production 8. 9.c. 10. Pleural effusion and shortness of breath 11. ● 12. d. 13. Chest wall pain and early metastasis Week 6 Which statement is false concerning how abdominal pain is produced? a. Low concentrations of anaerobes, such as Streptococci, Lactobacilli, Staphylococci, Enterobacteria, and Bacteroides, produce abdominal pain. b. Edema and vascular congestion produce abdominal pain by stretching. c. Ischemia, caused by distention of bowel obstruction or mesenteric vessel thrombosis, produces abdominal pain. d. Chemical mediators, such as histamine, bradykinin, and serotonin, produce abdominal pain. Physiologic jaundice in a newborn is caused by: a. Reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine b. Mild conjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia c. Impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin d. Increased bilirubin production Which symptom is characteristic of bulimia nervosa? a. Absence of three consecutive menstrual periods. b. Fear of becoming obese, despite progressive weight loss. c. Recurrent episodes of binge eating with fears of not being able to stop eating. d. Perception that the body is fat when it is actually underweight. What is a cause of chronic antral gastritis? a. Reflux of bile and alkaline pancreatic secretions b. Pernicious anemia c. Helicobacter pylori bacteria d. Development of autoantibodies to gastric H+/K+ ATPase Which statement is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy? a. Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids that is attached to ammonia is a source of increased ammonia. b. End products of intestinal protein digestion are sources of increased ammonia. c. Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices is a source of increased ammonia. d. Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon are sources of increased ammonia. What is the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease? a. Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter b. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid c. Presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus d. Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus Physiologic jaundice in a newborn is caused by: a. Reabsorption of bilirubin in the small intestine b. Mild conjugated (indirect-reacting) hyperbilirubinemia c. Impaired hepatic uptake and excretion of bilirubin d. Increased bilirubin production What is the most common manifestation of portal hypertension–induced splenomegaly? a. Erythrocytopenia b. Leukopenia c. Pancytopenia d. Thrombocytopenia A peptic ulcer may occur in all of the following areas except the: a. Jejunum b. Stomach c. Duodenum d. Esophagus Which symptom is characteristic of bulimia nervosa? a. Absence of three consecutive menstrual periods. b. Fear of becoming obese, despite progressive weight loss. c. Recurrent episodes of binge eating with fears of not being able to stop eating. d. Perception that the body is fat when it is actually underweight. A person who has cholera would be expected to have which type of diarrhea? a. Osmotic b. Motility c. Secretory d. Small volume Secretory. Primary causes of secretory diarrhea are bacterial enterotoxins (particularly those released by cholera or strains of Escherichia coli) and neoplasms (such as gastrinoma or thyroid carcinoma). (p. 1454) cholera-A bacterial disease causing severe diarrhea and dehydration, usually spread in water. Which disorder is characterized by damage to the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunum and impaired secretion of secretin, cholecystokinin, and pancreatic enzymes? a. Gluten-sensitive enteropathy b. Wilson disease c. Cystic fibrosis d. Galactosemia Gluten-sensitive enteropathy is characterized by damage to the mucosa of the duodenum and jejunumand has secondary effects that exacerbate malabsorption. The secretion of intestinal hormones, such as secretin and cholecystokinin, may be diminished. Because these chemical messengers are scarce, secretion of pancreatic enzymes and expulsion of bile from the gall-bladder decrease. These statements are not true of the other options What is a cause of chronic antral gastritis? a. Reflux of bile and alkaline pancreatic secretions b. Pernicious anemia c. Helicobacter pylori bacteria d. Development of autoantibodies to gastric H+/K+ ATPase Which statement is false regarding the sources of increased ammonia that contribute to hepatic encephalopathy? a. Accumulation of short-chain fatty acids that is attached to ammonia is a source of increased ammonia. b. End products of intestinal protein digestion are sources of increased ammonia. c. Digested blood leaking from ruptured varices is a source of increased ammonia. d. Ammonia-forming bacteria in the colon are sources of increased ammonia. What is the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease? a. Zone of low pressure of the lower esophageal sphincter b. Excessive production of hydrochloric acid c. Presence of Helicobacter pylori in the esophagus d. Reverse muscular peristalsis of the esophagus week 5 quiz patho Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured femur can result in which outcome after cast removal? a. The skin under the cast is dry and flaky. b. The bone is not straight. c. The muscles around the fracture site are weak. d. The fracture requires 6 to 8 weeks of physical therapy. Considering the pathophysiologic process of osteoporosis, which hormone exerts antiapoptotic effects on osteoblasts but proapoptotic effects on osteoclasts? a. Growth hormone b. Estrogen c. Parathyroid hormone