(fully covered questions and answers) EVIDENCE BASED PRACTICE FOR NURSES 3RD EDITION SCHMIDT TEST BANK/ Test bank for Schmidt & Brown 3rd Edition Evidence-Based Practice for Nurses: Appraisal and Application of Research

Test bank for Schmidt & Brown 3rd Edition Evidence-Based Practice for Nurses: Appraisal and Application of Research Testbank prepared by: Arlene H. Morris, EdD, RN, CNE and Debbie Faulk, PhD, RN, CNE both of Auburn Montgomery School of Nursing CHAPTER 1 WHAT IS EVIDENCE BASED PRACTICE? Multiple Choice Definition of research (p. 14) 1. Which of the following is the best definition of research? a. Critically thinking about problems that occur in health care to determine possible solutions. b. Information that is based on personal experience or tradition. c. Planned and systematic activity that leads to new knowledge and/or the discovery of solutions to problems or questions. d. Trying a variety of approaches to a clinical problem and settling on the approach that is effective more often than not. Definition of research utilization (p. 4) 2. Which of the following is the best definition of research utilization? a. Applying research findings from individual studies to practice. b. Analyzing multiple research studies to synthesize findings. c. Appreciating the importance of clinical decision making. d. Using previous personal experience to build confidence. Definition of EBP (pp. 4-5) 3. Which of the following is the best definition of evidence-based practice (EBP)? a. Application of research findings based on scientific theories in a clinical setting. b. Research studies that correspond to nationally established priorities for healthcare, conducted by experts in their fields. c. Use of theory-derived, research-based information in making decisions about health care delivery, with consideration of individual needs and preferences and the clinical expertise of the provider. d. Using the individual health care provider’s perception of truth without conscious attention or reasoning. Difference between research utilization and EBP (pp. 4-5) 4. Which of the following best describes the difference between research utilization and EBP? a. Research utilization is a process of evaluating multiple studies for the most generalizable findings; EBP is use of the most recent study on a topic. b. Research utilization involves changing practice based on findings of a single research study; EBP is the syntheses of findings from multiple studies to incorporate with practitioner skills and client preference to determine best care. c. Research utilization is the application of research findings to health care practice; EBP is considered in selecting medication options. d. Research utilization is review of research publications; EBP is using the healthcare provider’s perception of what care would be best in individual situations. Evidence from other disciplines (p. 6) 5. In what way can evidence from disciplines other than nursing be helpful? a. Theory based non-nursing evidence can provide a basis on which to build new evidence. b. Non-nursing evidence supports the use of nursing knowledge obtained by trial and error. c. Clinical decision making can be based on findings from single non-nursing research studies. d. All evidence is equally important to the practice of nursing. Identification of sources of evidence (p. 6) 6. You are a new nurse working at XYZ hospital. Your preceptor tells you to dangle Ms. Jones’ legs on the side of the bed before you attempt to assist her to a chair. You ask your preceptor why this is done and shNeUaRnSsIwNeGrTs,B“.CTOhMis is what we have always done, so go do it.” This is an example of which type of evidence? a. Trial and error b. Intuition c. Borrowed evidence d. Tradition Identification of sources of evidence (p. 6) 7. You are a new nurse working at XYZ hospital. Your preceptor tells you to dangle Ms. Jones’ legs on the side of the bed before you attempt to assist her to a chair. You ask your preceptor why this is done and she answers, “Because I said so.” This is an example of which type of evidence? a. Intuition b. Tradition c. Authority d. Borrowed evidence Identification of sources of evidence (p. 6) 8. Trial and error is not a preferred approach for delivering nursing care because a. it is not based on systematic scientific approaches. b. it is not a sanctioned method by the American Nurses Association. c. it is based only on intuition and therefore not scientifically based. d. patient outcomes are always based only on level 1 evidence. Identification of sources of evidence (p. 8) 9. Many nurses in clinical settings base nursing interventions on information obtained from a. level 1 evidence. b. individual research studies. c. colleagues. d. the American Nurses Association. Barriers to adopting EBP (p. 8) 10. Studies have shown that the reasons that nurses do not draw on research are related to a. communication problems. b. individual and organizational factors. c. personal disinterest. d. rapid organizational changes. Environment for EBP to flourish (p. 11) 11. Which of the following promotes consistent EBP practice changes in an institution? a. Clinical experts such as Advanced Practice Nurses (APNs) should be the authority for any change in practices. b. Change champions are needed on each work shift to facilitate practice changes. c. Nurse managers must mandate research within healthcare institutions. d. Opinion leaders should enforce adherence to their opinions. Environment for EBP to flourish (p. 10) 12. One method for overcoming a lack of resources to access evidence is to a. devote 15 minutes a day to reading evidence related to a clinical problem. b. attend conferences where clinical research is presented.. c. bookmark important Web sites that are sources of clinical guidelines. d. collaborate with a nursing program for access to resources. Barriers to adopting EBP (p. 9) 13. What steps can be taken to overcome the time barrier to adopting an EBP? a. Devote 15 minutes a day to reading evidence related to a clinical problem. b. Subscribe to e-mail summaries of research studies in your area of interest. c. Take advantage of available technologies to provide quick and convenient access to relevant data and clinical guidelines. d. All of the above Parts of a research article (p. 18) 14. Which section of a research article provides an overview of the study? a. Abstract b. Introduction c. Review of literature d. Theoretical framework Parts of a research article (pp. 18) 15. Which section of a research article identifies the problem being studied and includes a purpose statement and background information on the topic? a. Discussion section b. Introduction c. Methods section d. Results section Parts of a research article (p. 19) 16. A major portion of a research article is the methods section, which includes a discussion of the study design, the sample, and the collected. a. solutions b. statistics c. data d. theories Parts of a research article (p. 19) 17. The section of a research article outlines the methods used to analyze the data and notes the findings. a. results b. summary c. introduction d. abstract Parts of a research article (p. 20) 18. Which section of a research article provides an interpretation of the study’s results? a. Abstract b. Introduction c. Methods d. Discussion Ethical issues (p. 24) 19. The first regulations to protect human subjects in medical research studies were proposed by the in 1973. a. American Medical Association b. U.S. Department of Health, Education, and Welfare c. U.S. Food and Drug Administration d. Association of American Universities Ethical issues (p. 31) 20. Which of the following forms the basis for ethical conduct in medical research internationally? a. Jewish Chronic Disease Hospital study b. Nuremberg Code c. Tuskegee studies d. Willowbrook studies Short Answer/Fill-in Identifying types of research 1. The category of research that addresses why or how phenomena are related is . Answer: explanatory (p. 15) 2. research aims to forecast when certain phenomena will occur. Answer: predictive (p. 15) 3. The type of research that analyzes words to focus on the meanings individuals give to their experiences is . Answer: qualitative (p. 17) 4. Quantitative research focuses on collecting evidence, which is evidence gathered through observation using one or more of the five senses. Answer: empirical (p. 15) 5. research is concerned with providing accurate observations of phenomena in natural settings Answer: descriptive (p. 15) CHAPTER TWO USING EVIDENCE THROUGH COLLABORATION TO PROMOTE EXCELLENCE IN NURSING PRACTICE Multiple choice EBP levels of collaboration (p. 40) 1. What are the five EBP levels of collaboration? a. Organizational, societal, fraternal, national, and international b. Individual, organizational, regional, national, and international c. Professional, educational, organizational, regional, and national d. Individual, organizational, societal, regional, and international EBP levels of collaboration (p. 40) 2. Of the situations listed, which is the best example of collaboration between the levels described in the model of EBP collaboration? a. A health care organization funds a group of nurses to attend a research conference related to practice areas that have had less than desirable outcomes in the past year. b. An individual nurse searches databases for the best evidence to support practice with a population of clients on a particular unit. c. A participant at a national nursing organization conference listens attentively to presenters related to the mNoUsRt SreINleGvTaBn.tCtOopMics for the population served. d. A staff nurse uses findings from the Joanna Briggs Institute to support an EBP project, evaluates outcomes, and reports the findings at an international conference. Individual nurse level (pp. 40-41) 3. What is one step a staff nurse can take to advance EBP at the point of care? a. Establish the culture for EBP in institutional settings. b. Identify clinical questions related to current nursing practice. c. Promote consistent practice changes among different shifts. d. Reward nurses involved in EBP and help those who lack involvement. Individual nurse level (p. 41) 4. As a staff nurse, what steps can you take to advance EBP as part of your team or unit? a. Participate in implementing practice changes based on evidence. b. Participate as a member of an EBP project team. c. Participate in QI initiatives d. All of the above. Individual nurse level (p. 41) 5. As a staff nurse, how can you further educate yourself about EBP? a. Read evidence related to your area of practice on a regular basis. b. Watch what other nurses do. c. Follow the example of your supervisor. d. Act as a role model for younger staff. Nurse manager level (p. 41) 6. How can a nurse manager advance EBP as part of evaluating his or her staff? a. Set a good example with own behavior. b. Clearly outline goals for the team. c. Use performance criteria related to EBP. d. Participate in QI initiatives. Advanced practice nurse level (p. 41) 7. The advanced practice nurse can work to implement EBP by a. Serving as a coach and mentor in EBP. b. Locates relevant evidence and synthesizes evidence for practice. c. Uses evidence to writes and modify practice standards. d. All of the above. Organizational level (p. 43) 8. Creating an EBP culture is an example of contribution at the a. organizational level. b. individual nurse level. c. regional level. d. international level. International level (p. 48) 9. The Cochrane Collaboration and the Joanna Briggs Institute are examples of which EBP collaboration level? a. Individual b. International c. Organizational d. Regional National level (p. 46) 10. What national organizations can nurses use to locate EBP resources and EBP-based clinical guidelines? a. Agency for Healthcare Research and Quality, National Institute of Nursing Research, National Nursing Practice Network, and specialty nursing organizations. b. National Institutes of Health and regional resource centers. c. American Nurses Credentialing Center and the American Nurses Association. d. Department of Health and Human Services, Sigma Theta Tau International, and the Joanna Briggs Institute. Ethical guidelines (pp. 50-51) 11. Which international code for ethical conduct by physicians conducting biomedical research followed the Nuremberg Code and provides more specific guidelines? a. ANA Code of Ethics b. Belmont Report c. Code of Federal Regulations d. Declaration of Helsinki Ethical guidelines (p. 52) 12. Federal regulations mandate the establishment of institutional review boards whose purpose is to a. develop guidelines for conducting research. b. identify basic ethical principles in conducting research. c. review and approve research studies. d. provide a code of ethics for conducting research. Institutional review board (p. 56) 13. Which type of IRB review is required for research involving vulnerable populations or when there are substantial risks to participants? a. Special review b. Full review c. Expanded review d. Expedited review Institutional review board (p. 56) 14. A nurse researcher wants to interview parents and their autistic children regarding the children’s sleep patterns. This study would require which type of IRB review? a. Expedited review b. Full review c. Special review d. Exempt from review Institutional review board (pp. 57-58) 15. A nurse educator is planning a research study related to experiential learning activities regarding caring for older adults with cognitive changes. Which type of IRB review is needed? a. Exempt from review b. Expedited review c. Expanded review d. Full review Institutional review board (p. 56) 16. Research proposals may be eligible for an expedited review by the IRB if they involve minimal risk to participants. This means that a. there is a very low risk of harm or discomfort to study participants, no more than that involved in daily life or routine physical or psychological exams. b. the study will be based on the analysis of existing specimens or data only. c. there is some chance of harm to study participants due to invasive procedures. d. the study will only involve subject 18 years or older who have given consent. Ethical issues (p. 52) 17. The Belmont Report, issued in 1979, identified the following three ethical principles: a. confidentiality, consent, and justice. b. autonomy, social justice, and respect for persons. c. beneficence, respect for persons, and justice. d. altruism, confidentiality, and consent. Institutional review board (p. 49) 18. In regard to IRB criteria, which of the following are included in the category of vulnerable populations? a. Fetuses, infants, children, pregnant women b. Prisoners, students, females, African Americans c. Residents of long-term care facilities, students under the age of 18, infants d. Hospitalized adults, illegal aliens, premature infants, children Nurses as patient advocates (p. 59) 19. A nurse has agreed to assist in collecting data from patients in a primary care setting as part of a research study on grieving and coping skills. What would be the most appropriate action by the nurse when a patient becomes visibly upset after relating that his son was recently killed in an automobile accident and that he does not want to talk further about it? a. Sympathize and explain how his answers will help many others. b. Weigh the potential greater good for a greater number of people and continue. c. Support the patient receNivUiRnSgINcaGrTeBb.CyOcMeasing further questioning. d. Consider the primary duty to advance nursing knowledge and continue questioning after a brief break. Ethical issues (pp. 51, 54) 20. A nurse has agreed to assist in collecting data from clients in a long-term-care setting. The nurse becomes concerned upon realizing that many of the clients participating in the study have documented cognitive impairments. Which ethical responsibility is being violated? a. Beneficence b. Confidentiality c. Voluntary participation d. Informed consent CHAPTER THREE IDENTIFYING RESEARCH QUESTIONS Multiple choice Research question (p. 68) 1. An area of concern due to a gap in knowledge that requires a solution that can be described, explained, or predicted to improve practice is a a. research problem. b. purpose statement. c. null hypothesis. d. research hypothesis. Research question (p. 68) 2. Which one of the following could form the basis for a potential research study? a. The majority of patients are admitted between the hours of midnight and 4:00 a.m. b. The majority of nurses do not want to work the night shift. c. The majority of patient falls occur on the evening shift. d. The nurses who work the evening shift are not attentive to their patients. Research process (pp. 72-73) 3. An example of a isN: U“TRShIeNuGsTeBo.Cf OalMcohol by freshman at XYZ State University contributes to alcohol-related injuries and increasing numbers of visits to the local emergency room.” a. purpose statement. b. hypothesis. c. problem statement. d. research problem. Research process (pp. 72-73) 4. An example of a is: “To determine if brief screening for alcohol use and nursing intervention during orientation reduces self-reported alcohol use, alcohol-related injuries, and visits to the emergency room by college students during their freshman year.” a. problem statement b. purpose statement c. research question d. research hypothesis Research process (p. 74) 5. The following statement: “There will be a change in nursing practice of nurses after completion of an EBP mentorship program as compared to before the mentorship program,” is an example of a a. problem statement. b. purpose statement. c. research hypothesis. d. correlation. Research process (p. 71) 6. Once an idea is generated for a research problem, what is the next step? a. Identify variables to be studied. b. Perform a review of the literature. c. Conduct a survey to ascertain if the problem really exists. d. Formulate a hypothesis. Hypothesis (p. 76) 7. A simple hypothesis a. describes the associative or causal relationship between three or more variables. b. predicts how strong the relationship is between the variables. c. predicts an inverse relationship between the variables. d. describes the associative or causal relationship between two variables. Hypothesis (p. 77) 8. The following statement: “There will be no difference in practice of nurses after completion of an EBP mentorship program as compared to before the mentorship program,” is an example of a a. problem statement. b. purpose statement. c. directional hypothesis. d. null hypothesis. Hypothesis (pp. 74-75) 9. What is the purpose of formulating a hypothesis or hypotheses? a. To validate the research problem b. To provide direction for the research study by identifying possible outcomes c. To identify the independent variable d. To identify the dependent variable Variables (p. 80) 10. “There will be a change in nursing practice after completion of an EBP mentorship program as compared to before the mentorship program.” In the preceding statement, “completion of an EBP mentorship program” represents the a. confounding variable. b. dependent variable. c. extraneous variable. d. independent variable. Variables (p. 80) 11. Variables that confuse the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable, so that the research results do not really reflect a true relationship between the independent and dependent variables are a. extraneous variables. b. random variables. c. within-group variables. d. control variables. Hypotheses (p. 75) 12. A relationship between variables so that when one variable changes, the other variable changes is a(n) a. associative relationship. b. causal relationship. c. indirect relationship. d. predictive relationship. Formulating EBP questions (p. 81) 13. A widely used EBP model consisting of four components for identifying clinical questions for specific patient problems is known as the model. a. AHRQ b. PICO c. intervention d. comparison Formulating EBP questions (p. 82) 14. There is a study being conducted of adults over the age of 65 to investigate the effect of caregiver education on calming communication techniques in comparison to sedative medications on the agitation level of clients experiencing stage 2 dementia. In this study, the clients’ level of agitation would be the measured a. intervention. b. association. c. variable. d. outcome. Short Answer/Fill-in Dependent and independent variables (p. 80) 1. In a study investigating the effect of eating a bowl of oatmeal every day for 30 days and serum cholesterol levels, is the independent variable. Answer: oatmeal 2. In a study investigating the effect of eating a bowl of oatmeal every day for 30 days and serum cholesterol levels, is the dependent variable. Answer: serum cholesterol levels 3. In a study designed to determine if exposure to x-rays during pregnancy increases the likelihood of birth defects, x-ray exposure is the _ variable. Answer: independent 4. In a study designed to determine if exposure to x-rays during pregnancy increases the likelihood of birth defects, birth defects are the variable. Answer: dependent 5. “The purpose of this study was to determine the extent to which sex, age, height, and weight predict selected physiologic outcomes: namely, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV), hemoglobin concentration, food intake, serum glucose concentration, total serum cholesterol concentration, and cancer-related weight change (Brown et al., 1997).” In this study, the variable is the physiologic outcomes. Answer: dependent 6. “The purpose of this study was to determine the extent to which sex, age, height, and weight predict selected physiologic outcomes: namely, forced expiratory volume in one second (FEV), hemoglobin concentration, food intake, serum glucose concentration, total serum cholesterol concentration, and cancer-related weight change (Brown et al., 1997).” In this study, the variables are: sex, age, height, and weight. Answer: independent CHAPTER FOUR FINDING SOURCES OF EVIDENCE Multiple choice Purpose of finding evidence (p. 89) 1. As an undergraduate student, which of the following should be the focus of your literature review? a. gathering information b. helping to identify a research question c. identifying gaps in current research d. identifying a source for publication of new findings Purpose of finding evidence (p. 89) 2. Researchers perform a literature review for the purpose of a. helping to sharpen and focus a research question. b. highlighting areas of needed change. c. identifying gaps in current research. d. all of the above. Purpose of finding evidence (p. 91) 3. To begin a literature review, what initial sources would you use to locate information on your topic of interest? a. Online search engines, journal archives in the local library, and recommendations from your supervisor or professor b. Journal articles by nationally recognized researchers, health sciences publication indexes, and online search engines c. Health sciences publication indexes, government and university literature databases, academic and hospital library resources d. Textbooks, government and university literature databases, and online medical sites Types of evidence (pp. 93-94) 4. Which of the following is an example of primary sources? a. Biographies b. Journal articles c. Systematic reviews d. Textbooks Types of evidence (pp. 93-94) 5. Which of the following best describes a primary source? a. Historical reviews b. Interpretations of other sources c. Original information d. Written summaries Types of evidence (p. 94) 6. Which of the following is an example of secondary sources? a. Summaries of primary sources b. Commentaries or interpretations c. Reviews d. All of the above Peer reviewed and refereed sources (p. 94) 7. What is the purpose of the peer-review process? a. To ensure confidence in the quality of published works b. To confirm that the work is from a primary source c. To evaluate publications included in the literature review d. To make a decision about best practice Types of reviews (p. 96) 8. Which of the following are scholarly papers that synthesize published studies and articles to answer questions about phenomena of interest? a. Integrative reviews b. Meta-analyses c. Peer reviews d. Systematic reviews Types of reviews (p. 96) 9. Which of the following combine results of studies into a measurable format and statistically estimate the effects of proposed intervenNtiUoRnsS?INGTB.COM a. Integrative reviews b. Meta-analyses c. Peer reviews d. Systematic reviews Types of reviews (p. 97) 10. Which of the following summarize the results and implications of large quantities of research and include articles addressing the same clinical problem? a. Integrative reviews b. Meta-analyses c. Peer reviews d. Systematic reviews How sources are organized (pp. 101, 111) 11. What is the most recognized and widely used database of published nursing practice literature? a. National Guideline Clearinghouse b. Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature c. MEDLINE (PubMed) d. National Institute of Nursing Research How sources are organized (p. 103) 12. What type of scholarly material can indicate upcoming “hot” topics and includes unpublished reports, conference papers, and grant proposals? a. Government agency reports b. Systematic reviews c. Grey literature d. Peer-reviewed summaries How to search for evidence (p. 108) 13. In conducting a keyword search of a literature database, including the Boolean operator “AND” to connect two words has what effect on the search results? a. Expands the search to include all articles containing either word b. Narrows the search to include only articles that contain both words c. Confuses the search so you may not get all articles related to your topic d. Defines the search by one or the other word How to search for evidence (p. 108) 14. In conducting a keyword search of a literature database, including the Boolean operator “OR” to connect two words has what effect on the search results? a. Expands the search to include all articles containing either word b. Narrows the search to include only articles that contain both words c. Confuses the search so you may not get all articles related to your topic d. Defines the search by one or the other word How to search for evidence (p. 108) 15. A nurse conducting a keyword search of a literature database enters the search terms “anorexia NOT bulimia” to obtain what result? a. All articles that discuss either anorexia or bulimia b. Articles that discuss both anorexia and bulimia c. Articles that discuss anorexia only d. Articles that discuss bulimia only How to search for evidence (p. 109) 16. In searching a database, a controlled vocabulary is a. a list of forbidden words that cannot be used as search terms b. a series of keywords that must be entered in a specific order c. proprietary terms that can only be used when searching one particular database d. a standardized, hierarchical list of terms that represent major subjects and conditions How to search for evidence (p. 107) 17. In which situation does the use of key words provide better results than a controlled vocabulary search? a. finding standardized hierarchical lists that represent major subject concepts b. searching full text or citation records c. searching for a particular subject d. searching for exact matches How to search for evidence (p. 110) 18. In searching database subject headings, you would use the technique to broaden the search by locating all records indexed to your search term plus any that include the term in a related, narrower category. a. exploding b. Boolean c. qualification d. nesting How to search for evidence (p. 110) 19. In searching a literature database, you would use the technique to designate which fields (e.g., author, title, subject, publication date) are to be included in the search. a. exploding b. Boolean c. qualification d. nesting How to search for evidence (p. 115) 20. After a database search has been completed and you have located published literature on your topic, what is the next step? a. Verify that all material has been subjected to the peer-review process. b. Appraise the materials to ensure their integrity and applicability. c. Include additional materials that NloUoRseSlIyNGreTlBat.Ce OtoMthe topic of interest. d. Exclude those materials obtained using data collection tools with low reliability. How to search for evidence (p. 115) 21. After completing a database search, if you have any doubts or concerns regarding the validity of articles you’ve located, what options do you have to resolve the issue? a. Exclude any materials for which you have doubts about their integrity. b. Verify questionable material elsewhere using a reputable source. c. Ask a nursing faculty member or a librarian for assistance. d. All of the above. Ethical citation of sources (pp. 116-117) 22. Which of the following statements should be cited if used in a research paper? a. Fewer UTIs occur with routine perineal hygiene. b. George Washington was the first president of the United States. c. Zithromax has shown statistically significant results in the treatment of URIs. d. Antibiotics are used to treat infection. Ethical citation of sources (p. 117) 23. The test can help determine if it is necessary to cite a source in a written work. a. common knowledge b. plagiarism c. reference source d. qualification Short answer/Fill-in Purpose of finding evidence (p. 90) 1. An article by J. Lander published in Clinical Nursing Research in 2005 outlined the competencies that nursing students need to develop to perform a quality literature review. One key competency is to know what sources of information are reliable and and how to them using available resources and technology. Answers: credible, access 2. An article by J. Lander published in Clinical Nursing Research in 2005 outlined the competencies that nursing students need to develop to perform a quality literature review. One key competency is to understand the various types of designs and design issues. Answer: specific 3. An article by J. Lander published in Clinical Nursing Research in 2005 outlined the competencies that nursing students need to develop to perform a quality literature review. One key competency is to know how to differentiate poor quality from good quality reports, systematic , and clinical . Answers: reviews, guidelines 4. An article by J. Lander published in Clinical Nursing Research in 2005 outlined the competencies that nursing students need to develop to perform a quality literature review. One key competency is to be able to assess the of an intervention for clinical . Answers: value, practice Peer review process (p. 94) 5. The peer review process involves rigorous by experts and editors. Answer: evaluation 6. The peer review process ensures that research articles and papers to be published as sources meet established for publication. Answers: primary, criteria 7. The peer review is conducted to ensure the and integrity of published works. Answer: quality Ethical citation of sources (p. 117) 8. The definition of is using another’s work without giving proper credit. Answer: plagiarism 9. A simple rule to follow in written materials is if statements or graphics are not your original work, it is best to the source. Answer: cite 10. It may be necessary to credit sources even when the original statements are (rewritten in your own words) if the concept being presented must be attributed to another. Answer: paraphrased 11. Certain concepts have become knowledge and as such, do not need to be attributed to a source. Answer: common CHAPTER FIVE LINKING THEORY, RESEARCH, AND PRACTICE Relationship between theory, research, and practice (p. 123) 1. Which of the following is both the source of questions addressed by research and the testing ground for theory? a. literature review b. practice c. peer review d. study design Relationship between theory, research, and practice (p. 123) 2. What provides an essential foundation for nursing practice? a. Formal and informal nursing education b. Theories and research c. Hypotheses and discussion d. Repeated clinical studies Relationship between theory, research, and practice (p. 124) 3. The concepts that are core to nursing are person, environment, health, and nurse; these are known as the nursing a. metaparadigm b. model c. proposition d. theory Relationship between theory, research, and practice (p. 124) 4. A is a set of concepts linked through propositions to explain a phenomenon. a. metaparadigm b. model c. construct d. theory Importance of testing theory (p. 127) 5. What compels nurses to continue learning throughout their careers to avoid becoming laggards? a. Changes over time regarding knowledge of effective practices b. Desire for publication of new findings c. Increased funding for in-service education attendance d. License renewal requirements Importance of testing theory (pp. 125-127) 6. In the United States during the 1970s, nursing practice included the use of granulated sugar to pack stage III and IV wounds based on the rationale that bacteria would be less invasive of new tissue formation. Over time, this method did not result in statistically significant increase in wound healing time as compared to use of normal saline wet packing. Research was begun to determine what packing method led to best wound healing. The 1970s practices provides an example of a. nursing practice based on personal experience. b. nursing practice based on research. c. nursing practice based on untested theory. d. nursing practice based on tested theory. Importance of testing theory (pp. 125) 7. A is a statement about the relationship between two or more concepts. a. model b. construct c. theory d. proposition Language of research (pp. 127) 8. A is a special type of proposition that has a theoretical basis and can be tested empirically. a. model b. paradigm c. hypothesis d. proposition Language of research (pp. 127) 9. In research, a(n) is an observation that can be measured by assigning a number to each dimension. a. relationship b. assumption c. concept d. variable Language of research (pp. 128) 10. A theory has credence until a) a less costly intervention is determined. b) evidence comes forward to refute it. c) new hypotheses are determined from practice. d) proof is provided that supports it. Language of research (p. 127) 11. Researchers formulated hypotheses based on clear definitions of a. concepts and variables. b. empirical indicators. c. likely risk factors. d. populations to be included. Language of research (p. 128) 12. Explicit statements of how a variable will be measured, such as using a rating scale to collect quantitative data regarding pain, are called a. conceptual definitions b. empirical indicators c. operational definitions d. theoretical framework Language of research (p. 128) 13. According to Florence Nightingale, health is defined as the absence of disease. This is an example of a(n) a. conceptual definition b. empirical indicator c. operational definition d. theoretical framework Language of research (p. 129) 14. Empirical indicators are the instruments and methods used to a. define concepts. b. measure and report on variables. c. analyze statistics. d. formulate theories. Language of research (p. 129) 15. What type of research, usually based on qualitative methods, is used to develop theory? a. Experimental b. Deductive c. Analytical d. Inductive Ethical research (p. 135) 16. Ethical research involves citation of previous researchers and their findings to assist in the a. creation of a universal theory of nursing. b. advancement of deductive research. c. publication of inductive research. d. evolution of nursing knowledge and practice. CHAPTER SIX KEY PRINCIPLES OF QUANTITATIVE DESIGN Research study designs (p. 144) 1. In research studies using experimental designs, the purpose is to a. examine causality. b. explain relationships and differences among variables.. c. observe a phenomenon after it has been manipulated.. d. predict relationships among variables.. Research study designs (p. 144) 2. In research studies using nonexperimental designs, the purpose is to a. explain relationships and differences among variables. b. predict relationships and differences among variables. c. describe a phenomenon in detail. d. all of the above. Research study designs (p. 144) 3. The major difference between experimental and nonexperimental designs is the role of the a. variables. b. participants. c. researchers. d. reviewers. Research study designs (p. 144) 4. A type of quantitative study is the , which examines outcomes across a number of studies. (p. 124) a. case study b. controlled trial c. descriptive study d. meta-analysis Research study designs (p. 144) 5. The researcher actively manipulates the independent (causal) variable to determine its effect on the dependent (outcome) variable when using a(n) a. experimental design b. meta-analysis c. nonexperimental design d. control group Quantitative designs (p. 145) 6. Causality is the that exists between a cause and its effect. a. balance b. relationship c. purpose d. outcome Quantitative designs (p. 145) 7. When outcomes have many causes, the situation is known as a. inference. b. relationship. c. manipulation. d. multicausality. Quantitative designs (p. 146) 8. Probability is how likely it is that the effect of the dependent variable was caused by the variable. a. independent b. evaluated c. manipulated d. original Quantitative designs (p. 146) 9. Manipulation is the , or treatment, that is being tested in an experimental study. a. medication b. proposition c. intervention d. maturation Quantitative designs (p. 146) 10. In health-related experimental designs, the group of subjects receiving the standard of care but not the intervention is the a. control group. b. intervention group. c. total population. d. total sample. Quantitative designs (p. 146) 11. Variables that confuse the effect of the independent variable on the dependent variable are a. control variables. b. extraneous variables. c. random variables. d. within-group variables. Quantitative designs (p. 147) 12. When extraneous variables influence and distort the relationship between the independent variable (IV) and the dependent variable (DV) so that the findings do not reflect a true relationship between the IV and the DV, the result is a. voided. b. inconsistent. c. randomization. d. bias. Quantitative designs (p. 147) 13. What is an effective way to control extraneous variables? a. Research purpose b. Experimental treatment c. Informed consent d. Randomization Quantitative designs (p. 147) 14. A method of sampling in which all subjects in the sample have an equal chance of being assigned to either the treatment group or the control group is a. between-group design. b. within-group design. c. random assignment. d. random sampling. Quantitative designs (p. 147) 15. A method of sampling in which all people in the population of interest have an equal chance of being selected to be included in the study is a. selected sampling. b. within-group sampling. c. random assignment. d. random sampling. Validity (p. 149) 16. Study validity refers to a. the accuracy and peer-reviewed approval of the research design. b. the absence of forces that can alter the results of the study. c. the degree to which the researcher can prove that the results are accurate. d. the ability to accept that the research results are logical, reasonable, and justifiable based on the evidence presented. Validity (p. 150) 17. The degree to which one can conclude that the independent variable, rather than extraneous variables, produced the change in the dependent variable is known as a. effectiveness. b. internal validity. c. statistical validity. d. Reliability. Validity (pp. 150, 153) 18. External validity refers to a. the degree to which confounding variables interfere with the study outcomes. b. the degree to which the findings can be generalized to other subjects, settings, and times. c. the influence of a specific event on the dependent variable. d. the relationship between the independent and dependent variable. Validity (p. 151) 19. A researcher interested in studying the effect of hearing loss on self-esteem in adolescents in grades 6 through 12 would need to be aware of what type of threat to internal validity? a. Testing b. History c. Mortality d. Maturation Validity (p. 151) 20. Which type of bias occurs when the dependent variable is influenced by changes made in the way variables are measured? a. Threat of history b. Threat of instrumentation c. Threat of maturation d. Threat of selection bias Validity (p. 154) 21. In which type of designs do neiNthUeRr SsIuNbGjeTcBts.CnOoMr individuals administering the treatments know if subjects are receiving experimental interventions or the standard of care? a. Double-blind experimental b. Longitudinal (prospective) c. Quasi-experimental d. Nonexperimental Validity (p. 153) 22. The occurs when changes noted in the dependent variable can be a result of subject reactivity and not a result of the independent variable. a. selection effect b. Type II effect c. Hawthorne effect d. placebo effect Short answer/fill-in Categorizing designs according to time 1. Also referred to as “ex post facto,” designs start with the dependent variable and look back in time to determine possible causative factors. Answer: retrospective (p. 156) 2. Nonexperimental designs in which data is gathered from a group of subjects at only one point in time are known as studies. Answer: cross-sectional (p. 157) 3. When more than one group of subjects is studied at the same point in time, this nonexperimental study type is a . Answer: cohort comparison (p. 157) 4. Also known as prospective designs, designs gather data about subjects at more than one point in time. They can be either or nonexperimental. Answer: longitudinal, experimental (p. 158) 5. In a follow-up study, subjects are followed into the . Answer: future (p. 158) 6. A study in which subjects receive more than one experimental treatment and then are followed over time is based on the design. Answer: crossover (p. 159) CHAPTER 7 QUANTITATIVE DESIGNS: USING NUMBERS TO PROVIDE EVIDENCE Multiple Choice Nonexperimenal designs (p. 175) 1. Researchers use nonexperimental, descriptive designs for a variety of purposes, including a. for early stages of theory development. b. when it is not practical to conduct an experiment on the subject. c. neither A nor B. d. both A and B. Experimental designs (p. 168) 2. Why would a researcher need to be concerned about the administration of a pretest and posttest in a research study? a. It is a threat to external validity. b. It is a threat to internal validity. c. It is a form of selection bias. d. It is a form of maturation. Experimental designs (p. 167) 3. Which design type is considered to be the “classic” experimental design in which subjects are randomized into either the intervention group or the control group and measured before and after the intervention is implemented? a. Solomon four group b. Two group pretest-posttest c. Multiple group d. Two group posttest only Experimental designs (p. 169) 4. Which design type allows researchers to manipulate more than one intervention during the same experiment? a. Multiple group b. Crossover c. Factorial d. Quasi-experimental Experimental designs (pp. 165-175) 5. The three major categories of quantitative research designs are a. experimental, quasi-experimental, descriptive b. experimental, quasi-experimental, nonexperimental c. experimental, nonexperimental, exploratory d. experimental, descriptive, exploratory Quasi-experimental designs (p. 171) 6. Which design type is similar to experimental design but does not meet one of the other essential components of experimental design, lacking either randomization or a control group? a. Descriptive b. Crossover c. Factorial d. Quasi-experimental Quasi-experimental designs (p. 171) 7. The advantage of using a quasi-experimental design in nursing is a. smaller sample size. b. to provide beginning evidence of causality. c. descriptive statistics can be used to analyze data. d. the design is stronger in determining causality. Nonexperimental designs (pp. 176-177) 8. Which type of design would be used by researchers interested in establishing relationships between two or more variables, for example, the type of coping used by caregivers of older adults having cognitive changes and the occurrence of elder abuse? a. correlational b. quasi-experimental c. multi-experimental d. factorial CHAPTER EIGHT QUALITATIVE DESIGNS: USING WORDS TO PROVIDE EVIDENCE Multiple choice Qualitative research (p. 188) 1. The difference between quantitative and qualitative research designs is that a. quantitative designs use words to describe or give meaning to a phenomenon, and qualitative designs use numbers. b. quantitative designs use numbers to give meaning to a phenomenon or an event, and qualitative designs rely on words. c. qualitative designs predict causality, while quantitative designs describe, predict, or explain phenomena. d. quantitative research is exploratory and inductive, while qualitative research aims to reach conclusions by deduction and hypothesis testing. Qualitative research (p. 188) 2. Qualitative research is , in contrast to quantitative studies. a. exploratory and deductive b. quasi-experimental c. exploratory and inductive d. purposive Qualitative research (p. 189) 3. Volunteers in qualitative research studies are called a. participants. b. candidates. c. subjects. d. all of the above. Qualitative research (p. 190) 4. Sources of data in qualitative research include a. artifacts such as documents, photographs, and physical objects. b. in-depth interviews. c. direct observations. d. all of the above. Qualitative research (p. 190) 5. Researchers using qualitative methods conduct , which is the time they spend interacting with participants through interviews, observations, and maintaining detailed records. a. focus groups b. trials c. fieldwork d. experiments Qualitative research (pp. 189-190) 6. Sample size in qualitative studies is generally smaller than in quantitative research and depends on a. information collection methods. b. data saturation determinations. c. information being provided by participants d. randomization strategy and location of participants. Qualitative research (p. 189) 7. Snowball sampling in qualitative research refers to a. obtaining information (data) from specific persons. b. randomization. c. accumulation of participants based on word-of-mouth. d. using a single group of participants in any given setting or time period. Qualitative research (p. 190) 8. Data saturation is a situation that occurs in qualitative research when a. the number of participants selected for the study becomes higher than needed. b. data collection stops when no new information is obtained and data collected has become repetitive. c. a specialized data analysis method is implemented.. d. it becomes necessary to implement a method for eliminating data once it has been repeated more than three times. Qualitative research (p. 189) 9. A qualitative study investigating the lived experience of women under the age of 25 who survived a liver transplant is an example of which sampling method? a. Informant b. Purposive c. Snowball d. Random Qualitative research (p. 190) 10. The is often the key source of data in qualitative research. a. interview b. observation c. intervention d. experiment Qualitative research (p. 192) 11. In contrast to quantitative methods, qualitative data analysis is completed a. immediately after data collection. b. by a different team of researchers. c. simultaneously with data collection. d. as a multi-step process involving two teams. Qualitative research (p. 194) 12. The four essential elements for evaluation of qualitative research are a. validity, reliability, transferability, and timeliness. b. credibility, trustworthiness, validity, and confirmability. c. transferability, dependability, timeliness, and confirmability d. credibility, transferability, dependability, and confirmability. Qualitative research (p. 194) 13. What strategies are used to establish the credibility of qualitative research findings? a. sample validation, persistent observation, memoing, and peer debriefing. b. persistent observation, peer debriefing, referential adequacy, and member checks. c. snowball sampling, referential adequacy, persistent observation, and repeat interviewing. d. persistent observation, bracketing, member checks, and peer debriefing. Qualitative research (p. 195) 14. In qualitative research, confirmability refers to rigorous efforts by the researcher to a. be objective and maintain an audit trail to document the research process. b. transfer findings from one study to another study with similar context. c. interview the required number of participants and to keep accurate records. d. gather a sufficient amount of data and to accurately interpret that data. Types of qualitative research (p. 196) 15. The four major categories of qualitNatUivReSIrNesGeTaBrc.ChOdMesigns are a. experimental, descriptive, exploratory, and ethnography. b. ethnography, phenomenology, experimental, and quasi-experimental. c. phenomenology, ethnography, grounded theory, and historical. d. historical, ethnography, grounded theory, and exploratory. Types of qualitative research (p. 197) 16. The research method used to study participants’ lived experience is a. ethnography. b. phenomenology. c. historical. d. grounded theory. Types of qualitative research (pp. 197, 199) 17. The research method used when the goal is to discover a process is a. ethnography. b. phenomenology. c. historical. d. grounded theory. Types of qualitative research (p. 197, 201) 18. The research method based on making collective observations and that is used to study a particular culture is a. ethnography. b. phenomenology. c. historical. d. grounded theory. Types of qualitative research (pp. 197, 206) 19. The research method based on documentation of sources used to retroactively study events or people is a. ethnography. b. phenomenology. c. historical. d. grounded theory. Ethical considerations (p. 209) 20. While qualitative researchers must adhere to the same ethical standards as quantitative researchers, unique ethical considerations apply to a. data-management procedures. b. the relationship between the researcher and participant. c. both A and B. d. neither A nor B. Short answer/Fill-in How findings from qualitative studies contribute to EBP 1. Qualitative research answers the and of behavior that are not easily explained through quantitative methods. Answer: hows, whys (p. 187) 2. Qualitative research generates to explain phenomena and processes about which little is known. Answer: theories (p. 187) 3. Qualitative research gathers information about phenomena and events, and in doing so, can sensitize nurses to experiences. Answer: subjective, patient (pp. 187-189) CHAPTER NINE COLLECTING EVIDENCE Multiple choice Data collection (p. 218) 1. Researchers often conduct a study using a scaled-back data collection method to evaluate the instruments and process to head off any potential problems. a. pilot b. scaled c. measured d. observational Collecting quantitative data (p. 220) 2. The primary methods for data collection in quantitative studies are a. questionnaires, subjective surveys, rating scales, and structured observation. b. observations, scales, questionnaires, and physiological measures. c. physiological measures, scales, interviews, and direct observations. d. physiological measures, scales, observations, and subjective methods. Collecting quantitative data (p. 220) 3. A researcher who wants to implement a less costly method of data collection and one that offers the greatest possibility of anonymity would likely use a. observation. b. interviews. c. physiological measures. d. questionnaires. Collecting quantitative data (p. 221) 4. In collecting data with questionnaires, response rate is defined as the a. percentage of questionnaires returned. b. total number of questionnaires returned. c. percentage of participants involved in the study. d. total amount of data being collected from participants. Collecting quantitative data (p. 221) 5. As part of a study on sodium intake, a nurse researcher at a fast food restaurant counts the number of people who salt their food. Which data collection method is being used? a. Scale b. Physiological measurement c. Questionnaire d. Observation Collecting quantitative data (pp. 222-223) 6. In nursing, scales are often used to collect data about patient pain, fatigue, quality of life, and health status. a. incremental b. visual analog c. multidimensional d. Likert Collecting quantitative data (p. 223) 7. A nurse researcher measures participants’ blood pressure readings early in the morning and late evening and compares the two readings. Which data collection method is being used? a. Observation b. Scale c. Physiological measurement d. Questionnaire Collecting quantitative data (p. 224) 8. What are the four categories (levels) used to describe measurements? a. Nominal, ordinal, interval, and ratio b. Ordinal, systematic, ratio, and continuous c. Interval, nominal, categorical, and simple d. Ratio, percentile, systematic, and continuous Collecting quantitative data (p. 224) 9. Which level of measurement is the weakest? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio Collecting quantitative data (pp. 224-225) 10. Which of the following would be categorized as nominal data? a. Weight b. Marital status c. Exam scores d. Educational level Collecting quantitative data (p. 225) 11. Which level of measurement uses a continuum of numeric values running from low to high at inequal intervals? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio Collecting quantitative data (p. 225) 12. Which level of measurement uses a continuum of numeric values that have meaning and are spaced equally apart? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Interval d. Ratio Collecting quantitative data (p. 225) 13. A nurse educator has conducted a study regarding test scores. This data represents which type of measurement? a. Nominal b. Ordinal c. Ratio d. Interval Collecting quantitative data (p. 225) 14. In a study that examines the amount of empathy communicated by participants, which level of measurement would be used? a. Interval b. Ratio c. Ordinal d. Nominal Validity (p. 227) 15. The two types of measurement error are a. random and systematic. b. random and continuous. c. methodological and random d. methodological and systematic. Validity (p. 228) 16. Validity of measurement refers to the an instrument measures what it is supposed to measure. a. aspect b. degree c. method d. increment Validity (p. 228) 17. Content validity is established when researchers know that the instrument measures the it was intended to measure. a. statistics b. rankings c. concept d. ratio Validity (p. 228) 18. The process used to establish content validity is to give an instrument to a panel of , who rate its effectiveness; researchers then make adjustments to the instrument based on that feedback. a. subjects b. statisticians c. participants d. experts Validity (p. 228) 19. A nurse researcher asks several colleagues to evaluate a data collection tool to determine if the tool appears to measure the concept under study. This is an example of a. content validity. b. construct validity. c. face validity. d. criterion validity. Validity (p. 230) 20. Construct validity is the degree to which an instrument measures the it was intended to measure. a. statistical basis b. theoretical concept c. hypothesis d. observation Reliability (p. 232) 21. Reliability of measurement refers to the of an instrument. a. accuracy and consistency b. validity and accuracy c. dependability and clarity d. validity and consistency Reliability (p. 231) 22. Reliability estimates are shown in the form of a a. ratio b. parallel correlation c. fraction d. correlation coefficient Reliability (p. 232) 23. Interrater reliability tests for equivalence when instruments record observations. This is determined by the a. extent to which two or more individual raters agree. b. extent to which two or more individual raters disagree. c. extent to which multiple raters disagree. d. extent to which two or more individual raters agree on the data collection method. Collecting qualitative data (p. 235) 24. Qualitative data collection is based on collecting a. measurements. b. observations. c. words. d. concepts. Collecting qualitative data (p. 235) 25. The most important data collection instrument in qualitative studies is the a. participant. b. researcher. c. survey form. d. interval scale. Short answer/Fill-in Assessing the quality of quantitative data collection methods (p. 234) When reviewing the methods section of a research article, you must consider a number of factors to determine if the data collection methods were valid and reliable. You would ask: 1. What are the being measured? Answer: variables 2. Does the data collection fit with the study variables? Answer: method 3. What is the (treatment)? Answer: intervention 4. Was sufficient information provided about the intervention and the group? Answer: control 5. What steps were taken to minimize error? Answer: measurement 6. What instruments were used and were and discussed for each instrument? Answer: validity, reliability 7. Was the setting described and the of measurement considered? Answer: level 8. Were there any difficulties with enrollment, attrition, or missing ? Answer: data Qualitative data collection: preparing for fieldwork (pp. 238-239) You have been selected to be part of a team going into the field to collect data from patients with disabilities who are receiving in-home nursing care. Your preparations for this fieldwork would include the following steps: 9. Bring all the necessary background materials you will need and extra forms, in case additional participants are identified. Answer: consent 10. Bring extra participant sheets that explain the purpose of the study. Answer: information 11. If interviews are being conducted, bring additional tape , batteries, and . Answer: recorders, tapes 12. For video interviews, bring additional cameras and and, if using a non-digital recording system, extra _ . Answer: batteries, videotapes 13. If compensation will be provided toNpUarRtSicIiNpGaTnBts.,CmOMake sure you have the monetary or nonmonetary with you. Answer: rewards CHAPTER TEN USING SAMPLES TO PROVIDE EVIDENCE Multiple choice Sampling fundamentals (p. 248) 1. The entire group of elements (can be people, events, experiences, or behaviors) that meet study criteria is the a. control group. b. accessible population. c. target population. d. representative sample. Sampling fundamentals (p. 248) 2. A select group of subjects that is representative of all eligible subjects constitutes the a. target population. b. sample. c. assigned informants. d. control group. Sampling fundamentals (p. 248) 3. The difference between a population and a sample is a. a population is a representative sample of a group. b. a sample includes people, objectsN, UaRndSIeNvGeTnBts.C. OM c. a population is a specialized segment of a group. d. a sample is a representative group of a defined population. Sampling fundamentals (p. 248) 4. The is the group of elements to which the researcher has reasonable access. a. target population b. participant population c. accessible population d. control group Sampling fundamentals (p. 248) 5. An example of an accessible population is a. all RNs in the United States. b. all pediatric RNs. c. RN-to-BSN students. d. RN-to-BSN students at one university. Sampling fundamentals (p. 249) 6. Representativeness refers to a. elements of the sample possess similar characteristics to elements of the target population. b. selection of subjects for the sample who have agreed to express specific opinions or beliefs that are representative of their ethnic or cultural group. c. selection of a sample that includes the same percentage of men and women. d. random sampling from the general population without the use of specific criteria. Sampling fundamentals (p. 249) 7. The more representative the sample, the more confidence there is the results of studies to the target population. a. identifying b. generalizing c. randomizing d. selecting Sampling fundamentals (p. 251) 8. Establishing clear criteria for sample eligibility is done to a. improve studies by enhancing precision in sample selection. b. make sure no relevant populations are excluded. c. increase the sample size. d. decrease the sample size. Sampling fundamentals (p. 251) 9. When sample criteria are , nurses can determine if the study results are applicable to the clinical practice topic under consideration. a. inclusive b. exclusive c. explicit d. stratified Sampling fundamentals (p. 251) 10. Sampling is present when subjects in a study do not adequately represent the target population. a. manipulation b. exclusion c. bias d. error Sampling fundamentals (p. 251) 11. Sampling is present when the sample includes elements that over- or underrepresent characteristics of the target population. a. manipulation b. exclusion c. bias d. error Sampling methods (p. 252) 12. Random selection of the sample is a primary characteristic of which sampling method? a. Nonprobability b. Probability c. Quota d. Convenience Sampling methods (p. 252) 13. The type of sampling typically used in quantitative studies is a. nonprobability. b. probability. c. quota. d. convenience. Sampling methods (p. 257) 14. The sampling method that does not require random selection of elements is a. nonprobability. b. probability. c. quota. d. convenience. Sampling methods (p. 257) 15. Nonprobability sampling carries more risk of selection bias than probability sampling because is not used. a. exclusion b. stratification c. representation d. randomization Sampling methods (p. 257) 16. The major disadvantage of nonprobability sampling compared with probability sampling is a. limited randomization. b. the sample size is too large. c. limited generalizibility. d. the sample size is too small. Sampling methods (pp. 257-258) 17. Sample bias is greatest in which sampling strategy? a. Quota b. Snowballing c. Convenience d. Stratified Sampling methods (p. 258) 18. Fifty RN-to-BSN students attending the same nursing school is an example of which sampling method? a. Convenience b. Target c. Stratified d. Purposive Sampling methods (p. 259) 19 The preferred sampling method to obtain participants in qualitative research studies is e. purposive f. random g. snowballing h. recruitment Sampling methods (pp. 257-258) 20. Sixteen health policy interest groups in the state of Alabama is an example of which sampling method? a. Target b. Stratified c. Purposive d. Convenience Sample size (p. 261) 21. Adequate sample size is important because a. the sample has to be large enough for the study to be considered worthy of publication. b. the total