EMT Trauma Exam FISDAP Exam | Latest Updated Version
2026/2027 | 300 Questions with Verified Answers &
Rationales | INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Q1. When approaching a scene of a trauma incident, what is your first order of
business?
A) Airway management
B) C-Spine control
C) Body substance isolation
D) Scene safety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority. An unsafe scene threatens the EMT,
the patient, and bystanders. Airway, C-spine, and BSI are addressed after ensuring a safe
scene .
Q2. You arrive at the scene of an MVA with three patients, all with minor visible
injuries. Two are refusing treatment, and the last is complaining of neck and back
pain. How should you proceed?
A) Treat all three patients, they are visibly injured and need medical attention
B) Obtain signed refusals from the first two patients, then proceed to the third
C) Treat the third patient only; nothing else is needed for the other two
D) Have your partner obtain refusals from the two patients who refused treatment, while
you treat the last patient
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Proper scene management requires simultaneous care for the injured patient
and documentation of refusals for those who decline care. This is the most efficient and
legally sound approach .
,Q3. Which of the following is the most preventable cause of trauma death for
adults?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Airway obstruction
D) Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock is the most preventable cause of trauma death. The
approach is "Stop the bleeding, give oxygen, fluid bolus, and rapid transport" .
Q4. A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than _____
hours following the incident.
A) 24
B) 48
C) 72
D) 96
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) should be conducted within 72
hours of the incident to be most effective in preventing long-term psychological effects .
Q5. What is a "load and go" (scoop and run) patient?
A) A patient who can be treated on scene
B) A patient with a critical mechanism of injury requiring rapid transport
C) A patient who refuses transport
D) A patient who is stable and requires only minor care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: "Load and go" patients are those with critical mechanisms of injury or signs
of shock who require rapid transport to a trauma center. On-scene time should be
minimized .
,Q6. You are on the scene of a fall from a significant height. The patient is
unconscious. What is the priority after ensuring scene safety?
A) Obtain a complete set of vitals
B) Open the airway with jaw-thrust
C) Perform a detailed physical exam
D) Apply a cervical collar
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airway management is the priority after scene safety. A jaw-thrust maneuver
should be used to open the airway while maintaining in-line spinal stabilization .
Q7. When should the detailed physical exam usually be performed?
A) Immediately after the rapid trauma assessment
B) On the scene after performing the initial assessment
C) Upon arrival to the hospital's emergency department
D) In the back of the ambulance on the way to the hospital
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The detailed physical exam is performed in the ambulance en route to the
hospital to find any other possible injuries that could have been missed during the rapid
trauma assessment .
Q8. A patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. The driver was
unrestrained and the windshield is spidered. This mechanism suggests:
A) Low-velocity penetrating trauma
B) Decelerating blunt trauma
C) High-velocity penetrating trauma
D) Thermal injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An unrestrained driver with a spidered windshield experienced rapid
deceleration, causing the body to continue forward into the steering wheel and
windshield (blunt trauma) .
, Q9. The way a patient is injured is often referred to as the:
A) Mechanism of injury
B) Nature of illness
C) Injury pattern
D) Energy transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The mechanism of injury (MOI) describes how the patient was injured and is
critical for predicting injury patterns and guiding assessment .
Q10. What is the primary role of the EMT in the emergency medical services (EMS)
system?
A) Provide definitive care in the hospital
B) Perform rapid transport to the closest facility
C) Provide both emergency medical care and transportation for the sick and injured
D) Coordinate all pre-hospital emergency response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The EMT's primary role is to provide both emergency medical care and
transportation for the sick and injured .
Q11. You arrive at a scene where a patient was found in a pool. He is unconscious
but breathing and has a pulse. What is the best course of action?
A) Jump into the pool and begin CPR
B) Remove the patient from the pool, immobilize, and transport
C) Apply cervical and spinal immobilization while the patient is still in the pool
D) Wait for a trained water rescue team
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Apply cervical and spinal immobilization while the patient is still in the pool
to prevent further injury during extrication .
2026/2027 | 300 Questions with Verified Answers &
Rationales | INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD
Q1. When approaching a scene of a trauma incident, what is your first order of
business?
A) Airway management
B) C-Spine control
C) Body substance isolation
D) Scene safety
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Scene safety is always the first priority. An unsafe scene threatens the EMT,
the patient, and bystanders. Airway, C-spine, and BSI are addressed after ensuring a safe
scene .
Q2. You arrive at the scene of an MVA with three patients, all with minor visible
injuries. Two are refusing treatment, and the last is complaining of neck and back
pain. How should you proceed?
A) Treat all three patients, they are visibly injured and need medical attention
B) Obtain signed refusals from the first two patients, then proceed to the third
C) Treat the third patient only; nothing else is needed for the other two
D) Have your partner obtain refusals from the two patients who refused treatment, while
you treat the last patient
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Proper scene management requires simultaneous care for the injured patient
and documentation of refusals for those who decline care. This is the most efficient and
legally sound approach .
,Q3. Which of the following is the most preventable cause of trauma death for
adults?
A) Tension pneumothorax
B) Hemorrhagic shock
C) Airway obstruction
D) Neurogenic shock
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hemorrhagic shock is the most preventable cause of trauma death. The
approach is "Stop the bleeding, give oxygen, fluid bolus, and rapid transport" .
Q4. A critical incident stress debriefing should be conducted no longer than _____
hours following the incident.
A) 24
B) 48
C) 72
D) 96
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Critical Incident Stress Debriefing (CISD) should be conducted within 72
hours of the incident to be most effective in preventing long-term psychological effects .
Q5. What is a "load and go" (scoop and run) patient?
A) A patient who can be treated on scene
B) A patient with a critical mechanism of injury requiring rapid transport
C) A patient who refuses transport
D) A patient who is stable and requires only minor care
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: "Load and go" patients are those with critical mechanisms of injury or signs
of shock who require rapid transport to a trauma center. On-scene time should be
minimized .
,Q6. You are on the scene of a fall from a significant height. The patient is
unconscious. What is the priority after ensuring scene safety?
A) Obtain a complete set of vitals
B) Open the airway with jaw-thrust
C) Perform a detailed physical exam
D) Apply a cervical collar
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Airway management is the priority after scene safety. A jaw-thrust maneuver
should be used to open the airway while maintaining in-line spinal stabilization .
Q7. When should the detailed physical exam usually be performed?
A) Immediately after the rapid trauma assessment
B) On the scene after performing the initial assessment
C) Upon arrival to the hospital's emergency department
D) In the back of the ambulance on the way to the hospital
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The detailed physical exam is performed in the ambulance en route to the
hospital to find any other possible injuries that could have been missed during the rapid
trauma assessment .
Q8. A patient has been involved in a motor vehicle collision. The driver was
unrestrained and the windshield is spidered. This mechanism suggests:
A) Low-velocity penetrating trauma
B) Decelerating blunt trauma
C) High-velocity penetrating trauma
D) Thermal injury
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An unrestrained driver with a spidered windshield experienced rapid
deceleration, causing the body to continue forward into the steering wheel and
windshield (blunt trauma) .
, Q9. The way a patient is injured is often referred to as the:
A) Mechanism of injury
B) Nature of illness
C) Injury pattern
D) Energy transfer
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The mechanism of injury (MOI) describes how the patient was injured and is
critical for predicting injury patterns and guiding assessment .
Q10. What is the primary role of the EMT in the emergency medical services (EMS)
system?
A) Provide definitive care in the hospital
B) Perform rapid transport to the closest facility
C) Provide both emergency medical care and transportation for the sick and injured
D) Coordinate all pre-hospital emergency response
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The EMT's primary role is to provide both emergency medical care and
transportation for the sick and injured .
Q11. You arrive at a scene where a patient was found in a pool. He is unconscious
but breathing and has a pulse. What is the best course of action?
A) Jump into the pool and begin CPR
B) Remove the patient from the pool, immobilize, and transport
C) Apply cervical and spinal immobilization while the patient is still in the pool
D) Wait for a trained water rescue team
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Apply cervical and spinal immobilization while the patient is still in the pool
to prevent further injury during extrication .
