ATI Med Surg Exam 1 Practice Question Bank|
Comprehensive Practice Exam with Verified
Questions and Answers plus Detailed Rationales |
Latest Update 2026/2027 - Graded A+
Question 1
A nurse is planning care for a client who is having a percutaneous transluminal
coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with stent placement. Which of the following actions
should the nurse anticipate in the postprocedure plan of care?
A. Instruct the client about a long-term cardiac conditioning program
B. Administer scheduled doses of acetaminophen
C. Check for peak laboratory markers of myocardial damage
D. Monitor for bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Bleeding is a post-procedure complication of PTCA because of the
administration of heparin during the procedure and the removal of the femoral (or
brachial) sheath. Manual pressure or a closure device is used to obtain hemostasis
to the site. The client should remain on bed rest until hemostasis is assured. The
nurse should provide teaching about cardiac rehabilitation prior to discharge (A).
The nurse should plan to administer scheduled doses of aspirin postprocedure, not
acetaminophen (B). The nurse should monitor for peak laboratory markers of
myocardial damage following a myocardial infarction and reperfusion with
thrombolytic therapy (C).
Question 2
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical records of a group of
clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for iron deficiency? (Select all that
apply.)
A. A client who is postmenopausal
B. A client who is a vegetarian
C. A middle adult male client
D. A client who is pregnant
E. A toddler who is overweight
pg. 1
,Answer: B, D, E
Rationale: A client who is a vegetarian might require additional iron because the
availability of iron in vegetable food sources is limited. During pregnancy,
maternal blood volume increases, and the fetus requires additional iron; therefore,
the RDA of iron for clients who are pregnant is increased to 27 mg per day.
Toddlers who are overweight may get most of their calories from milk and foods
that are not considered healthy, which increases their risk for iron-deficiency
anemia. Postmenopausal women (A) and middle adult males (C) are at lower risk
for iron deficiency.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has protein-calorie
malnutrition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Decreased albumin
B. Elevated hemoglobin
C. Elevated lymphocytes
D. Decreased cortisol
Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in the albumin level can be an indication of long-term
protein depletion. Other potential conditions that result in decreased albumin levels
include burns, wound drainage, and impaired hepatic function. Hemoglobin is
typically decreased (B), lymphocytes are decreased (C), and cortisol may be
affected but is not the primary indicator (D).
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure and has
received intravenous mannitol. Which of the following findings indicates a
therapeutic effect of this medication?
A. Decreased blood glucose
B. Decreased bronchospasms
C. Increased urine output
D. Increased temperature
Answer: C
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by
mobilizing intracranial fluid and inhibiting the reabsorption of water and
pg. 2
,electrolytes in the kidneys. Increased urine output and decreased intracranial
pressure are therapeutic effects of this medication. Mannitol does not directly
affect blood glucose (A), bronchospasms (B), or temperature (D).
Question 5
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about assessing clients who are
having an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What is the most common assessment
finding with acute MI?
A. Dyspnea
B. Pain in the shoulder and left arm
C. Substernal chest pain
D. Palpitations
Answer: C
Rationale: Evidence-based practice indicates that the most common manifestation
of acute MI is substernal chest pain that does not subside with rest or nitroglycerin.
Therefore, nurses should make pain management with morphine a priority to
reduce myocardial oxygen demand and increase oxygenation. Dyspnea (A),
shoulder/arm pain (B), and palpitations (D) can occur but are not the most common
findings.
Question 6
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who had a bone marrow
transplant and has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following statements indicates
that the client understands the precautions he must take at home?
A. "I'll stick with soft foods for now."
B. "My family will be bringing me fresh flowers today."
C. "I'll use a new disposable razor each day."
D. "I'll blow my nose more often to avoid nosebleeds."
Answer: A
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia (a low platelet count) is common after a bone
marrow transplant. To prevent bleeding until the client's platelet count improves,
the client should avoid hard foods that could cause mouth trauma. Fresh flowers
(B) could introduce infections. The client should use an electric shaver rather than
a razor (C). Blowing the nose (D) could cause bleeding.
pg. 3
, Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy with an inflated cuff in place.
Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should suction the client's
airway secretions?
A. The client is unable to speak.
B. The client's airway secretions were last suctioned 2 hr ago.
C. The client coughs and expectorates a large mucus plug.
D. The nurse auscultates coarse crackles in the lung fields.
Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should auscultate coarse crackles or rhonchi, identify a moist
cough, hear or see secretions in the tracheostomy tube, and then suction the client's
airway secretions. A client who has a tracheostomy with an inflated cuff in place is
unable to speak (A). The nurse should assess the need for suctioning every 2 hours
and suction as necessary (B). The nurse should assess the client's airway after
coughing and only suction the client's secretions if the client is not able to cough
and expectorate secretions (C).
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client during the first 72 hr following a cerebrovascular
accident (CVA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Turn the client's head to the side with the head of the bed elevated 60°
B. Place the head of the bed flat with pillows under the client's neck and feet
C. Elevate the head of the bed 25° to 30° with the client in a neutral midline
position
D. Position the client in a dorsal recumbent position with pillows under the head
and knees
Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed 25° to 30° with the client's head in a
neutral midline position helps prevent an increase in intracranial pressure.
Increased intracranial pressure is a major risk factor for complications in the first
72 hours following the onset of a CVA. Turning the head to the side (A) or placing
pillows under the neck (B, D) can increase ICP by impeding venous drainage.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has cataracts. Which of the following findings
pg. 4
Comprehensive Practice Exam with Verified
Questions and Answers plus Detailed Rationales |
Latest Update 2026/2027 - Graded A+
Question 1
A nurse is planning care for a client who is having a percutaneous transluminal
coronary angioplasty (PTCA) with stent placement. Which of the following actions
should the nurse anticipate in the postprocedure plan of care?
A. Instruct the client about a long-term cardiac conditioning program
B. Administer scheduled doses of acetaminophen
C. Check for peak laboratory markers of myocardial damage
D. Monitor for bleeding
Answer: D
Rationale: Bleeding is a post-procedure complication of PTCA because of the
administration of heparin during the procedure and the removal of the femoral (or
brachial) sheath. Manual pressure or a closure device is used to obtain hemostasis
to the site. The client should remain on bed rest until hemostasis is assured. The
nurse should provide teaching about cardiac rehabilitation prior to discharge (A).
The nurse should plan to administer scheduled doses of aspirin postprocedure, not
acetaminophen (B). The nurse should monitor for peak laboratory markers of
myocardial damage following a myocardial infarction and reperfusion with
thrombolytic therapy (C).
Question 2
A nurse in a provider's office is reviewing the medical records of a group of
clients. Which of the following clients is at risk for iron deficiency? (Select all that
apply.)
A. A client who is postmenopausal
B. A client who is a vegetarian
C. A middle adult male client
D. A client who is pregnant
E. A toddler who is overweight
pg. 1
,Answer: B, D, E
Rationale: A client who is a vegetarian might require additional iron because the
availability of iron in vegetable food sources is limited. During pregnancy,
maternal blood volume increases, and the fetus requires additional iron; therefore,
the RDA of iron for clients who are pregnant is increased to 27 mg per day.
Toddlers who are overweight may get most of their calories from milk and foods
that are not considered healthy, which increases their risk for iron-deficiency
anemia. Postmenopausal women (A) and middle adult males (C) are at lower risk
for iron deficiency.
Question 3
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory findings of a client who has protein-calorie
malnutrition. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Decreased albumin
B. Elevated hemoglobin
C. Elevated lymphocytes
D. Decreased cortisol
Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in the albumin level can be an indication of long-term
protein depletion. Other potential conditions that result in decreased albumin levels
include burns, wound drainage, and impaired hepatic function. Hemoglobin is
typically decreased (B), lymphocytes are decreased (C), and cortisol may be
affected but is not the primary indicator (D).
Question 4
A nurse is assessing a client who has increased intracranial pressure and has
received intravenous mannitol. Which of the following findings indicates a
therapeutic effect of this medication?
A. Decreased blood glucose
B. Decreased bronchospasms
C. Increased urine output
D. Increased temperature
Answer: C
Rationale: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure by
mobilizing intracranial fluid and inhibiting the reabsorption of water and
pg. 2
,electrolytes in the kidneys. Increased urine output and decreased intracranial
pressure are therapeutic effects of this medication. Mannitol does not directly
affect blood glucose (A), bronchospasms (B), or temperature (D).
Question 5
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation about assessing clients who are
having an acute myocardial infarction (MI). What is the most common assessment
finding with acute MI?
A. Dyspnea
B. Pain in the shoulder and left arm
C. Substernal chest pain
D. Palpitations
Answer: C
Rationale: Evidence-based practice indicates that the most common manifestation
of acute MI is substernal chest pain that does not subside with rest or nitroglycerin.
Therefore, nurses should make pain management with morphine a priority to
reduce myocardial oxygen demand and increase oxygenation. Dyspnea (A),
shoulder/arm pain (B), and palpitations (D) can occur but are not the most common
findings.
Question 6
A nurse is providing discharge teaching for a client who had a bone marrow
transplant and has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following statements indicates
that the client understands the precautions he must take at home?
A. "I'll stick with soft foods for now."
B. "My family will be bringing me fresh flowers today."
C. "I'll use a new disposable razor each day."
D. "I'll blow my nose more often to avoid nosebleeds."
Answer: A
Rationale: Thrombocytopenia (a low platelet count) is common after a bone
marrow transplant. To prevent bleeding until the client's platelet count improves,
the client should avoid hard foods that could cause mouth trauma. Fresh flowers
(B) could introduce infections. The client should use an electric shaver rather than
a razor (C). Blowing the nose (D) could cause bleeding.
pg. 3
, Question 7
A nurse is caring for a client who has a tracheostomy with an inflated cuff in place.
Which of the following findings indicates that the nurse should suction the client's
airway secretions?
A. The client is unable to speak.
B. The client's airway secretions were last suctioned 2 hr ago.
C. The client coughs and expectorates a large mucus plug.
D. The nurse auscultates coarse crackles in the lung fields.
Answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should auscultate coarse crackles or rhonchi, identify a moist
cough, hear or see secretions in the tracheostomy tube, and then suction the client's
airway secretions. A client who has a tracheostomy with an inflated cuff in place is
unable to speak (A). The nurse should assess the need for suctioning every 2 hours
and suction as necessary (B). The nurse should assess the client's airway after
coughing and only suction the client's secretions if the client is not able to cough
and expectorate secretions (C).
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client during the first 72 hr following a cerebrovascular
accident (CVA). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Turn the client's head to the side with the head of the bed elevated 60°
B. Place the head of the bed flat with pillows under the client's neck and feet
C. Elevate the head of the bed 25° to 30° with the client in a neutral midline
position
D. Position the client in a dorsal recumbent position with pillows under the head
and knees
Answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed 25° to 30° with the client's head in a
neutral midline position helps prevent an increase in intracranial pressure.
Increased intracranial pressure is a major risk factor for complications in the first
72 hours following the onset of a CVA. Turning the head to the side (A) or placing
pillows under the neck (B, D) can increase ICP by impeding venous drainage.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has cataracts. Which of the following findings
pg. 4
