ATI Medical-Surgical Integumentary/Burns
Exam Questions with Correct Answers
(VerifiedAnswers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
Instant Download PDF
1. A client with a partial-thickness burn is admitted to the
emergency department. Which finding is most
characteristic of a partial-thickness burn?
A. Dry, leathery, painless skin
B. Moist, red or pink skin with blister formation and significant
pain
C. Charred tissue extending through the entire skin
D. White, waxy skin without sensation
Rationale: Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and
part of the dermis. Because some nerve endings remain intact,
the client commonly experiences significant pain. The wound is
typically moist, red or pink, and may develop blisters. Full-
thickness burns are more likely to appear dry, leathery, white,
brown, or charred and may have reduced sensation because
nerve endings have been destroyed.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who sustained a full-thickness
burn. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
,A. Bright-red tissue that blanches with pressure
B. Multiple intact blisters with severe pain
C. Dry, leathery tissue with decreased or absent sensation
D. Moist wound with rapidly increasing capillary refill
Rationale: Full-thickness burns destroy the epidermis and
dermis and can damage nerve endings. The wound may appear
dry, leathery, white, brown, or black and sensation can be
significantly decreased. The absence of pain at the center of a
severe burn does not indicate a minor injury; it can indicate
extensive nerve destruction.
3. A client arrives after being rescued from a house fire. The
client has facial burns, soot around the mouth, and a
hoarse voice. Which action is the priority?
A. Apply topical antimicrobial medication
B. Obtain a detailed dietary history
C. Prepare for early airway management and administer
oxygen as prescribed
D. Begin range-of-motion exercises
Rationale: Facial burns, soot around the mouth, and hoarseness
strongly suggest possible inhalation injury. Airway edema can
progress rapidly and may make later intubation extremely
difficult. Airway and breathing take priority over wound care,
nutrition, and mobility interventions.
, 4. Which assessment finding in a client with a burn injury
requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Pain rated 8 out of 10
B. Blisters on the forearm
C. Increasing hoarseness and difficulty breathing
D. Mild edema surrounding the burn
Rationale: Progressive hoarseness and respiratory difficulty can
indicate airway edema associated with inhalation injury. Airway
compromise can become life-threatening quickly. Pain,
blistering, and localized edema require treatment but do not
take priority over an unstable airway.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a circumferential full-
thickness burn of the arm. Which finding should the nurse
report immediately?
A. Mild pain at the burn site
B. Diminished distal pulses and increasing extremity tightness
C. Small areas of blistering
D. Serous drainage from the wound
Rationale: Circumferential burns can form a rigid eschar that
restricts circulation as edema develops underneath the burned
tissue. Diminished pulses and increasing tightness can indicate
impaired perfusion and possible compartment syndrome.
Prompt intervention may include escharotomy as prescribed.
, 6. Which intervention is appropriate when caring for a client
during the emergent phase of a major burn injury?
A. Restrict intravenous fluids to prevent edema
B. Administer large amounts of oral fluids immediately
C. Initiate prescribed fluid resuscitation and closely monitor
urine output
D. Delay fluid replacement until wound care is completed
Rationale: Major burns cause extensive capillary permeability
and fluid shifts, resulting in intravascular volume loss. Fluid
resuscitation is therefore a major priority during the emergent
phase. Urine output is an important indicator of renal perfusion
and response to fluid therapy.
7. A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation
in an adult client with a major burn. Which finding is most
useful?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Adequate urine output and improving hemodynamic status
C. Increased wound drainage
D. Development of additional blisters
Rationale: Adequate urine output is a practical indicator of renal
perfusion and overall response to fluid resuscitation. Heart rate,
blood pressure, mental status, peripheral perfusion, and
laboratory values are also monitored. Wound appearance and
Exam Questions with Correct Answers
(VerifiedAnswers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A
Instant Download PDF
1. A client with a partial-thickness burn is admitted to the
emergency department. Which finding is most
characteristic of a partial-thickness burn?
A. Dry, leathery, painless skin
B. Moist, red or pink skin with blister formation and significant
pain
C. Charred tissue extending through the entire skin
D. White, waxy skin without sensation
Rationale: Partial-thickness burns involve the epidermis and
part of the dermis. Because some nerve endings remain intact,
the client commonly experiences significant pain. The wound is
typically moist, red or pink, and may develop blisters. Full-
thickness burns are more likely to appear dry, leathery, white,
brown, or charred and may have reduced sensation because
nerve endings have been destroyed.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who sustained a full-thickness
burn. Which assessment finding should the nurse expect?
,A. Bright-red tissue that blanches with pressure
B. Multiple intact blisters with severe pain
C. Dry, leathery tissue with decreased or absent sensation
D. Moist wound with rapidly increasing capillary refill
Rationale: Full-thickness burns destroy the epidermis and
dermis and can damage nerve endings. The wound may appear
dry, leathery, white, brown, or black and sensation can be
significantly decreased. The absence of pain at the center of a
severe burn does not indicate a minor injury; it can indicate
extensive nerve destruction.
3. A client arrives after being rescued from a house fire. The
client has facial burns, soot around the mouth, and a
hoarse voice. Which action is the priority?
A. Apply topical antimicrobial medication
B. Obtain a detailed dietary history
C. Prepare for early airway management and administer
oxygen as prescribed
D. Begin range-of-motion exercises
Rationale: Facial burns, soot around the mouth, and hoarseness
strongly suggest possible inhalation injury. Airway edema can
progress rapidly and may make later intubation extremely
difficult. Airway and breathing take priority over wound care,
nutrition, and mobility interventions.
, 4. Which assessment finding in a client with a burn injury
requires the most immediate intervention?
A. Pain rated 8 out of 10
B. Blisters on the forearm
C. Increasing hoarseness and difficulty breathing
D. Mild edema surrounding the burn
Rationale: Progressive hoarseness and respiratory difficulty can
indicate airway edema associated with inhalation injury. Airway
compromise can become life-threatening quickly. Pain,
blistering, and localized edema require treatment but do not
take priority over an unstable airway.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a circumferential full-
thickness burn of the arm. Which finding should the nurse
report immediately?
A. Mild pain at the burn site
B. Diminished distal pulses and increasing extremity tightness
C. Small areas of blistering
D. Serous drainage from the wound
Rationale: Circumferential burns can form a rigid eschar that
restricts circulation as edema develops underneath the burned
tissue. Diminished pulses and increasing tightness can indicate
impaired perfusion and possible compartment syndrome.
Prompt intervention may include escharotomy as prescribed.
, 6. Which intervention is appropriate when caring for a client
during the emergent phase of a major burn injury?
A. Restrict intravenous fluids to prevent edema
B. Administer large amounts of oral fluids immediately
C. Initiate prescribed fluid resuscitation and closely monitor
urine output
D. Delay fluid replacement until wound care is completed
Rationale: Major burns cause extensive capillary permeability
and fluid shifts, resulting in intravascular volume loss. Fluid
resuscitation is therefore a major priority during the emergent
phase. Urine output is an important indicator of renal perfusion
and response to fluid therapy.
7. A nurse is evaluating the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation
in an adult client with a major burn. Which finding is most
useful?
A. Decreased appetite
B. Adequate urine output and improving hemodynamic status
C. Increased wound drainage
D. Development of additional blisters
Rationale: Adequate urine output is a practical indicator of renal
perfusion and overall response to fluid resuscitation. Heart rate,
blood pressure, mental status, peripheral perfusion, and
laboratory values are also monitored. Wound appearance and
