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NUR 155 – FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING Exam 3 Review Guide | Additional Set 1
| Latest Fall 2026 Questions with Detailed Rationales
Question 1
A nurse is removing personal protective equipment (PPE) after
caring for a client on contact precautions. Which PPE should be
removed first?
A. Gown
B. Gloves
C. Mask
D. Goggles
Answer: B
Rationale: Gloves are removed first because they are the most
contaminated. Gown is removed second, then goggles/face
shield, and mask/respirator is removed last.
Question 2
Which of the following is an example of a vector-borne
transmission?
A. Sneezing on a coworker
B. Mosquito bite transmitting malaria
C. Touching a contaminated doorknob
D. Sharing contaminated needles
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Answer: B
Rationale: Vector-borne transmission occurs when an insect or
animal carries a pathogen from one host to another, such as a
mosquito transmitting malaria.
Question 3
A client with active tuberculosis is placed in a negative-pressure
room. What is the primary purpose of negative pressure?
A. To keep the client warm
B. To prevent contaminated air from flowing out of the room
C. To increase oxygen concentration
D. To reduce noise
Answer: B
Rationale: Negative-pressure rooms prevent airborne
pathogens from escaping into the hallway by keeping air
flowing into the room and exhausting it through a HEPA filter.
Question 4
Which of the following is a normal white blood cell (WBC)
count?
A. 2,000–4,000/mm³
B. 5,000–10,000/mm³
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C. 12,000–20,000/mm³
D. 25,000–35,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal WBC count is 5,000–10,000/mm³. Elevated
counts may indicate infection or inflammation; low counts
increase infection risk.
Question 5
A nurse is providing care to a client with methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. Which precautions
are required?
A. Standard only
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Answer: B
Rationale: MRSA is transmitted by contact; contact precautions
(gloves and gown) are required in addition to standard
precautions.
Question 6
Which client is at highest risk for infection?
A. A 25-year-old with a sprained ankle
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B. A 65-year-old receiving chemotherapy with a low WBC count
C. A 40-year-old with hypertension
D. A 30-year-old with well-controlled diabetes
Answer: B
Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia (low WBC) and
advanced age increase infection risk due to compromised
immunity.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to don sterile gloves. Which action is
correct?
A. Touch the outside of the first glove with bare hands
B. Touch only the inside of the gloves when putting them on
C. Put gloves on before gown
D. Use nonsterile gloves for sterile procedures
Answer: B
Rationale: When donning sterile gloves, the bare hands should
touch only the inside cuff; sterile gloved hands touch only
sterile surfaces.
Question 8
Which of the following is a sign of localized infection?
A. Fever and chills
NUR 155 – FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING Exam 3 Review Guide | Additional Set 1
| Latest Fall 2026 Questions with Detailed Rationales
Question 1
A nurse is removing personal protective equipment (PPE) after
caring for a client on contact precautions. Which PPE should be
removed first?
A. Gown
B. Gloves
C. Mask
D. Goggles
Answer: B
Rationale: Gloves are removed first because they are the most
contaminated. Gown is removed second, then goggles/face
shield, and mask/respirator is removed last.
Question 2
Which of the following is an example of a vector-borne
transmission?
A. Sneezing on a coworker
B. Mosquito bite transmitting malaria
C. Touching a contaminated doorknob
D. Sharing contaminated needles
, Page |2
Answer: B
Rationale: Vector-borne transmission occurs when an insect or
animal carries a pathogen from one host to another, such as a
mosquito transmitting malaria.
Question 3
A client with active tuberculosis is placed in a negative-pressure
room. What is the primary purpose of negative pressure?
A. To keep the client warm
B. To prevent contaminated air from flowing out of the room
C. To increase oxygen concentration
D. To reduce noise
Answer: B
Rationale: Negative-pressure rooms prevent airborne
pathogens from escaping into the hallway by keeping air
flowing into the room and exhausting it through a HEPA filter.
Question 4
Which of the following is a normal white blood cell (WBC)
count?
A. 2,000–4,000/mm³
B. 5,000–10,000/mm³
, Page |3
C. 12,000–20,000/mm³
D. 25,000–35,000/mm³
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal WBC count is 5,000–10,000/mm³. Elevated
counts may indicate infection or inflammation; low counts
increase infection risk.
Question 5
A nurse is providing care to a client with methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in a wound. Which precautions
are required?
A. Standard only
B. Contact precautions
C. Droplet precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Answer: B
Rationale: MRSA is transmitted by contact; contact precautions
(gloves and gown) are required in addition to standard
precautions.
Question 6
Which client is at highest risk for infection?
A. A 25-year-old with a sprained ankle
, Page |4
B. A 65-year-old receiving chemotherapy with a low WBC count
C. A 40-year-old with hypertension
D. A 30-year-old with well-controlled diabetes
Answer: B
Rationale: Chemotherapy-induced neutropenia (low WBC) and
advanced age increase infection risk due to compromised
immunity.
Question 7
A nurse is preparing to don sterile gloves. Which action is
correct?
A. Touch the outside of the first glove with bare hands
B. Touch only the inside of the gloves when putting them on
C. Put gloves on before gown
D. Use nonsterile gloves for sterile procedures
Answer: B
Rationale: When donning sterile gloves, the bare hands should
touch only the inside cuff; sterile gloved hands touch only
sterile surfaces.
Question 8
Which of the following is a sign of localized infection?
A. Fever and chills