ATI RN Maternal Newborn Proctored Exam
Test Bank 3 Versions ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | 100% Correct Solutions | Verified
Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
VERSION 1 (Questions 1–60)
Antepartum Nursing Care (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A pregnant client at 12 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting that occurs primarily in the
morning. She asks the nurse what she can do to manage these symptoms. Which recommendation is
most appropriate?
A. Taking a prenatal vitamin on an empty stomach first thing in the morning
B. Eating dry crackers before getting out of bed and consuming small, frequent meals throughout the
day [CORRECT]
C. Drinking large amounts of water with meals to dilute stomach acid
D. Eliminating all carbohydrates from her diet since they trigger nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and dry crackers before rising are the standard first-line interventions
for morning sickness—prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach worsen nausea, large fluid volumes with
meals increase distension, and eliminating carbs is unnecessary and nutritionally harmful.
Q2: A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 28 weeks gestation. The client's blood
pressure at today's visit is 142/92 mmHg, up from her baseline of 110/70 mmHg. She has 2+ proteinuria
and reports a headache and visual changes. Which condition is most likely?
A. Gestational diabetes with associated hypertension
B. Preeclampsia with severe features requiring immediate evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Normal physiological changes of the third trimester
,D. Chronic hypertension unrelated to pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria, headache, and visual changes
defines preeclampsia with severe features—this isn't normal pregnancy, gestational diabetes, or chronic
hypertension (which would have been present before pregnancy or before 20 weeks).
Q3: A pregnant client at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should expect to feel fetal
movement. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "Most first-time mothers feel movement between 18 and 22 weeks." [CORRECT]
B. "You should have already felt movement by 12 weeks if the pregnancy is normal."
C. "Fetal movement isn't felt until after 28 weeks, so don't worry until then."
D. "You'll only feel movement if you have an anterior placenta."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quickening typically occurs between 18–22 weeks for first-time mothers and 16–20 weeks for
multiparas—feeling movement at 12 weeks is unlikely, 28 weeks is too late, and placenta location
affects but doesn't prevent movement perception.
Q4: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about foods to avoid during pregnancy. Which food should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A. Pasteurized yogurt and cheese
B. Unpasteurized soft cheeses like brie and feta [CORRECT]
C. Cooked chicken breast
D. Pasteurized orange juice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unpasteurized soft cheeses carry Listeria risk, which can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or
neonatal infection—pasteurized dairy, cooked meats, and pasteurized juices are all safe during
pregnancy.
,Q5: A client at 24 weeks gestation has a screening glucose challenge test with a result of 165 mg/dL
(threshold 140 mg/dL). What is the nurse's best action?
A. Reassure the client that one elevated screening test is not concerning
B. Schedule the client for a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for definitive diagnosis [CORRECT]
C. Immediately diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin therapy
D. Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated 1-hour screening test requires follow-up with a 3-hour OGTT for definitive
diagnosis—it's not diagnostic alone, insulin isn't started without confirmation, and repeating the same
screening test doesn't provide diagnostic clarity.
Q6: A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation. The client reports decreased fetal
movement over the past 24 hours. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this stage
B. Perform a non-stress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being [CORRECT]
C. Schedule a routine follow-up appointment in 1 week
D. Tell the client to drink caffeine to stimulate fetal movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a warning sign of potential fetal compromise—an NST provides
immediate assessment of fetal well-being, whereas reassurance, delayed follow-up, or caffeine
consumption are inappropriate responses to this concerning symptom.
Q7: A pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administering Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) immediately and again at 28 weeks
B. Administering RhoGAM at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-
positive [CORRECT]
C. Waiting until delivery to determine if RhoGAM is needed based on the baby's blood type
D. Administering RhoGAM only if the client experiences vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard protocol is RhoGAM at 28 weeks and postpartum within 72 hours if the infant is Rh-
positive—waiting until delivery or giving only after bleeding misses the antepartum protection window
and risks sensitization.
Q8: A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with placenta previa at 30 weeks gestation. The client reports
sudden, painless vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Performing a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation
B. Initiating continuous fetal monitoring, establishing IV access, and preparing for possible emergency
delivery [CORRECT]
C. Encouraging the client to ambulate to promote labor progression
D. Administering oxytocin to augment uterine contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa with bleeding requires immediate fetal monitoring, IV access, and preparation
for possible delivery—vaginal exams are contraindicated (can worsen bleeding), ambulation increases
bleeding risk, and oxytocin is contraindicated in undelivered previa.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the warning signs of preterm labor. Which symptom
should the client report immediately?
A. Mild backache after a long day at work
B. Regular uterine contractions every 10 minutes, pelvic pressure, and watery vaginal discharge
[CORRECT]
C. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions that resolve with rest
D. Increased urinary frequency in the third trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Regular contractions, pelvic pressure, and fluid leakage are classic preterm labor symptoms
requiring immediate evaluation—backache from activity, occasional Braxton Hicks, and urinary
frequency are normal pregnancy experiences.
Test Bank 3 Versions ACTUAL EXAM
2026/2027 | 100% Correct Solutions | Verified
Q&A | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded
VERSION 1 (Questions 1–60)
Antepartum Nursing Care (Questions 1–15)
Q1: A pregnant client at 12 weeks gestation reports nausea and vomiting that occurs primarily in the
morning. She asks the nurse what she can do to manage these symptoms. Which recommendation is
most appropriate?
A. Taking a prenatal vitamin on an empty stomach first thing in the morning
B. Eating dry crackers before getting out of bed and consuming small, frequent meals throughout the
day [CORRECT]
C. Drinking large amounts of water with meals to dilute stomach acid
D. Eliminating all carbohydrates from her diet since they trigger nausea
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Small, frequent meals and dry crackers before rising are the standard first-line interventions
for morning sickness—prenatal vitamins on an empty stomach worsen nausea, large fluid volumes with
meals increase distension, and eliminating carbs is unnecessary and nutritionally harmful.
Q2: A nurse is reviewing the prenatal record of a client at 28 weeks gestation. The client's blood
pressure at today's visit is 142/92 mmHg, up from her baseline of 110/70 mmHg. She has 2+ proteinuria
and reports a headache and visual changes. Which condition is most likely?
A. Gestational diabetes with associated hypertension
B. Preeclampsia with severe features requiring immediate evaluation [CORRECT]
C. Normal physiological changes of the third trimester
,D. Chronic hypertension unrelated to pregnancy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: New-onset hypertension after 20 weeks with proteinuria, headache, and visual changes
defines preeclampsia with severe features—this isn't normal pregnancy, gestational diabetes, or chronic
hypertension (which would have been present before pregnancy or before 20 weeks).
Q3: A pregnant client at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse when she should expect to feel fetal
movement. Which response by the nurse is most accurate?
A. "Most first-time mothers feel movement between 18 and 22 weeks." [CORRECT]
B. "You should have already felt movement by 12 weeks if the pregnancy is normal."
C. "Fetal movement isn't felt until after 28 weeks, so don't worry until then."
D. "You'll only feel movement if you have an anterior placenta."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Quickening typically occurs between 18–22 weeks for first-time mothers and 16–20 weeks for
multiparas—feeling movement at 12 weeks is unlikely, 28 weeks is too late, and placenta location
affects but doesn't prevent movement perception.
Q4: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about foods to avoid during pregnancy. Which food should the
nurse include in the teaching?
A. Pasteurized yogurt and cheese
B. Unpasteurized soft cheeses like brie and feta [CORRECT]
C. Cooked chicken breast
D. Pasteurized orange juice
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Unpasteurized soft cheeses carry Listeria risk, which can cause miscarriage, stillbirth, or
neonatal infection—pasteurized dairy, cooked meats, and pasteurized juices are all safe during
pregnancy.
,Q5: A client at 24 weeks gestation has a screening glucose challenge test with a result of 165 mg/dL
(threshold 140 mg/dL). What is the nurse's best action?
A. Reassure the client that one elevated screening test is not concerning
B. Schedule the client for a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) for definitive diagnosis [CORRECT]
C. Immediately diagnose gestational diabetes and start insulin therapy
D. Repeat the 1-hour glucose challenge test in 2 weeks
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated 1-hour screening test requires follow-up with a 3-hour OGTT for definitive
diagnosis—it's not diagnostic alone, insulin isn't started without confirmation, and repeating the same
screening test doesn't provide diagnostic clarity.
Q6: A nurse is assessing a pregnant client at 32 weeks gestation. The client reports decreased fetal
movement over the past 24 hours. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Reassure the client that decreased movement is normal at this stage
B. Perform a non-stress test (NST) to assess fetal well-being [CORRECT]
C. Schedule a routine follow-up appointment in 1 week
D. Tell the client to drink caffeine to stimulate fetal movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreased fetal movement is a warning sign of potential fetal compromise—an NST provides
immediate assessment of fetal well-being, whereas reassurance, delayed follow-up, or caffeine
consumption are inappropriate responses to this concerning symptom.
Q7: A pregnant client at 20 weeks gestation is Rh-negative and the father is Rh-positive. Which
intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administering Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) immediately and again at 28 weeks
B. Administering RhoGAM at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after delivery if the baby is Rh-
positive [CORRECT]
C. Waiting until delivery to determine if RhoGAM is needed based on the baby's blood type
D. Administering RhoGAM only if the client experiences vaginal bleeding during pregnancy
, Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Standard protocol is RhoGAM at 28 weeks and postpartum within 72 hours if the infant is Rh-
positive—waiting until delivery or giving only after bleeding misses the antepartum protection window
and risks sensitization.
Q8: A nurse is caring for a pregnant client with placenta previa at 30 weeks gestation. The client reports
sudden, painless vaginal bleeding. Which nursing intervention is the priority?
A. Performing a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation
B. Initiating continuous fetal monitoring, establishing IV access, and preparing for possible emergency
delivery [CORRECT]
C. Encouraging the client to ambulate to promote labor progression
D. Administering oxytocin to augment uterine contractions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Placenta previa with bleeding requires immediate fetal monitoring, IV access, and preparation
for possible delivery—vaginal exams are contraindicated (can worsen bleeding), ambulation increases
bleeding risk, and oxytocin is contraindicated in undelivered previa.
Q9: A nurse is teaching a pregnant client about the warning signs of preterm labor. Which symptom
should the client report immediately?
A. Mild backache after a long day at work
B. Regular uterine contractions every 10 minutes, pelvic pressure, and watery vaginal discharge
[CORRECT]
C. Occasional Braxton Hicks contractions that resolve with rest
D. Increased urinary frequency in the third trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Regular contractions, pelvic pressure, and fluid leakage are classic preterm labor symptoms
requiring immediate evaluation—backache from activity, occasional Braxton Hicks, and urinary
frequency are normal pregnancy experiences.
