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NR 507 Final Exam – Advanced Pathophysiology – (2026) Actual Questions & ANSWERs (Chamberlain)

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NR 507 Final Exam – Advanced Pathophysiology – (2026) Actual Questions & ANSWERs (Chamberlain)

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NR 507 Final Exam – Advanced Pathophysiology –
(2026)
Actual Questions & ANSWERs (Chamberlain)




Question 1: A 52-year-old patient reports chronic heartburn that worsens when lying flat and
accompanied by a persistent cough and hoarseness. Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains
the patient's atypical symptoms?



A. Increased gastric acid secretion due to Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

B. Impaired lower esophageal sphincter tone allowing reflux into the larynx

C. Delayed gastric emptying causing intestinal distention

D. Esophageal strictures causing mechanical obstruction



Correct ANSWER: B



Rationale for A: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome causes excessive acid production from gastrin-secreting
tumors, but this would typically present with severe peptic ulcer disease and diarrhea, not primarily with
cough and hoarseness.



Rationale for B: This is correct because atypical GERD symptoms occur when gastric contents reflux
beyond the esophagus into the larynx and respiratory tract, caused by decreased lower esophageal
sphincter tone allowing repeated exposure of upper airway tissues to acid.



Rationale for C: Delayed gastric emptying can contribute to GERD by increasing intragastric pressure, but
it does not directly explain laryngeal and respiratory symptoms.

,Rationale for D: Esophageal strictures cause mechanical obstruction and dysphagia, not the atypical
respiratory and laryngeal symptoms described in this patient.



Question 2: A patient with long-standing GERD has progressive dysphagia. Which complication is the NP
most concerned about based on GERD pathophysiology?



A. Esophageal varices

B. Esophageal stricture formation

C. Gastric outlet obstruction

D. Acute pancreatitis



Correct ANSWER: B



Rationale for A: Esophageal varices are associated with portal hypertension and liver disease, not with
chronic GERD.



Rationale for B: This is correct because chronic acid exposure leads to esophagitis and fibrosis,
increasing the risk of esophageal strictures, which present with progressive dysphagia as a known
complication of untreated GERD.



Rationale for C: Gastric outlet obstruction is typically caused by peptic ulcer disease or malignancies, not
directly by GERD.



Rationale for D: Acute pancreatitis is not a complication of GERD; it is associated with gallstones, alcohol
use, or other pancreatic pathologies.



Question 3: A patient with GERD continues to have symptoms despite lifestyle modifications and H2
blockers. Which medication directly targets the underlying mechanism of acid-mediated mucosal injury?



A. Metoclopramide

B. Sucralfate

C. Proton pump inhibitors

,D. Antacids



Correct ANSWER: C



Rationale for A: Metoclopramide is a prokinetic agent that enhances gastric emptying and increases LES
tone, but it does not directly reduce acid production.



Rationale for B: Sucralfate forms a protective barrier over ulcers, but it does not directly address acid
production.



Rationale for C: This is correct because proton pump inhibitors directly inhibit the H+/K+ ATPase enzyme
system at the secretory surface of the gastric parietal cell, effectively blocking the final step of acid
production.



Rationale for D: Antacids neutralize existing stomach acid but do not prevent acid secretion and have
short duration of action.



Question 4: A 45-year-old patient presents with fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice.
Laboratory findings show elevated AST, ALT, and alkaline phosphatase. Which pathophysiological
process is most likely occurring?



A. Acute hepatitis with hepatocellular necrosis

B. Choledocholithiasis with biliary obstruction

C. Pancreatic pseudocyst formation

D. Hepatic cirrhosis with portal hypertension



Correct ANSWER: B



Rationale for A: Acute hepatitis would present with elevated transaminases but typically without
significant alkaline phosphatase elevation or jaundice from obstruction.

, Rationale for B: This is correct because the triad of fever, RUQ pain, and jaundice with elevated alkaline
phosphatase indicates biliary obstruction, most commonly from choledocholithiasis.



Rationale for C: Pancreatic pseudocysts typically cause abdominal pain and may cause obstructive
jaundice if large, but fever and elevated liver enzymes would not be the primary presentation.



Rationale for D: Hepatic cirrhosis presents with chronic findings of portal hypertension, ascites, and
varices, not acute onset of fever and jaundice with RUQ pain.



Question 5: A patient with chronic hepatitis C develops ascites, splenomegaly, and esophageal varices.
Which pathophysiological mechanism best explains these findings?



A. Hepatocellular carcinoma invasion

B. Portal hypertension from hepatic fibrosis

C. Biliary duct obstruction

D. Hepatic steatosis



Correct ANSWER: B



Rationale for A: Hepatocellular carcinoma can occur with hepatitis C but does not directly cause ascites,
splenomegaly, and varices unless it causes portal hypertension.



Rationale for B: This is correct because chronic hepatitis C leads to hepatic fibrosis and cirrhosis, which
increases portal venous pressure, causing ascites, splenomegaly, and esophageal varices.



Rationale for C: Biliary duct obstruction causes jaundice and cholangitis, not the triad of portal
hypertension findings.



Rationale for D: Hepatic steatosis is fatty liver disease and does not typically cause portal hypertension
findings.

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Subido en
15 de agosto de 2026
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