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ATI ADULT MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING – UNIT 11 Sensory Disorders
(Eye and Ear) 120 Questions with Rationales
SECTION 1: EYE ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC PROCEDURES
1. A nurse is assessing a client's visual acuity using a Snellen
chart. The client's result is 20/50. The nurse should interpret
this as:
A. The client can see at 20 feet what a person with normal
vision can see at 50 feet
B. The client can see at 50 feet what a person with normal
vision can see at 20 feet
C. The client has normal vision
D. The client is legally blind
Answer: A
Rationale: A Snellen reading of 20/50 means the client sees at
20 feet what a normal eye sees at 50 feet. The first number is
the testing distance; the second is the distance at which a
normal eye can read the line.
2. Which of the following is a normal finding when examining
the pupils?
A. Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
(PERRLA)
B. One pupil fixed and dilated
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C. Pinpoint pupils that do not react
D. Unequal pupils with no response
Answer: A
Rationale: PERRLA is a normal pupillary assessment.
Fixed/dilated or unequal pupils may indicate neurologic or
ocular pathology.
3. A nurse is assessing a client's pupillary response. Shining a
light into one pupil causes the other pupil to constrict. This is
called:
A. Direct light reflex
B. Consensual light reflex
C. Accommodation
D. Convergence
Answer: B
Rationale: Consensual light reflex is constriction of the opposite
pupil when light is shined into one eye. Direct is same-eye
constriction.
4. Which of the following is a normal finding on
ophthalmoscopic examination?
A. A red reflex
B. White pupil
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C. Absent optic disc
D. Retinal hemorrhages
Answer: A
Rationale: A red reflex is normal; absence may indicate cataract
or other media opacity.
5. A client is scheduled for a slit-lamp examination. The nurse
should explain that this test:
A. Uses a high-intensity light and microscope to examine the
anterior eye
B. Measures visual field
C. Measures intraocular pressure
D. Uses sound waves
Answer: A
Rationale: Slit-lamp examination allows detailed visualization of
the anterior segment (cornea, iris, lens).
6. Which test is used to measure intraocular pressure?
A. Tonometry
B. Snellen chart
C. Slit-lamp
D. Amsler grid
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Answer: A
Rationale: Tonometry measures intraocular pressure and is
used to screen for glaucoma.
7. A normal intraocular pressure is approximately:
A. 5–10 mmHg
B. 10–21 mmHg
C. 25–35 mmHg
D. 35–45 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal IOP is 10–21 mmHg.
8. A client is scheduled for a fluorescein angiography. Which
assessment is most important before the procedure?
A. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
B. Blood glucose
C. Bowel sounds
D. Skin turgor
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluorescein angiography uses a dye; assess for
allergies, though fluorescein is not iodine-based but may still
cause reactions.
ATI ADULT MEDICAL SURGICAL NURSING – UNIT 11 Sensory Disorders
(Eye and Ear) 120 Questions with Rationales
SECTION 1: EYE ASSESSMENT & DIAGNOSTIC PROCEDURES
1. A nurse is assessing a client's visual acuity using a Snellen
chart. The client's result is 20/50. The nurse should interpret
this as:
A. The client can see at 20 feet what a person with normal
vision can see at 50 feet
B. The client can see at 50 feet what a person with normal
vision can see at 20 feet
C. The client has normal vision
D. The client is legally blind
Answer: A
Rationale: A Snellen reading of 20/50 means the client sees at
20 feet what a normal eye sees at 50 feet. The first number is
the testing distance; the second is the distance at which a
normal eye can read the line.
2. Which of the following is a normal finding when examining
the pupils?
A. Pupils equal, round, reactive to light and accommodation
(PERRLA)
B. One pupil fixed and dilated
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C. Pinpoint pupils that do not react
D. Unequal pupils with no response
Answer: A
Rationale: PERRLA is a normal pupillary assessment.
Fixed/dilated or unequal pupils may indicate neurologic or
ocular pathology.
3. A nurse is assessing a client's pupillary response. Shining a
light into one pupil causes the other pupil to constrict. This is
called:
A. Direct light reflex
B. Consensual light reflex
C. Accommodation
D. Convergence
Answer: B
Rationale: Consensual light reflex is constriction of the opposite
pupil when light is shined into one eye. Direct is same-eye
constriction.
4. Which of the following is a normal finding on
ophthalmoscopic examination?
A. A red reflex
B. White pupil
, Page |3
C. Absent optic disc
D. Retinal hemorrhages
Answer: A
Rationale: A red reflex is normal; absence may indicate cataract
or other media opacity.
5. A client is scheduled for a slit-lamp examination. The nurse
should explain that this test:
A. Uses a high-intensity light and microscope to examine the
anterior eye
B. Measures visual field
C. Measures intraocular pressure
D. Uses sound waves
Answer: A
Rationale: Slit-lamp examination allows detailed visualization of
the anterior segment (cornea, iris, lens).
6. Which test is used to measure intraocular pressure?
A. Tonometry
B. Snellen chart
C. Slit-lamp
D. Amsler grid
, Page |4
Answer: A
Rationale: Tonometry measures intraocular pressure and is
used to screen for glaucoma.
7. A normal intraocular pressure is approximately:
A. 5–10 mmHg
B. 10–21 mmHg
C. 25–35 mmHg
D. 35–45 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Normal IOP is 10–21 mmHg.
8. A client is scheduled for a fluorescein angiography. Which
assessment is most important before the procedure?
A. Allergy to iodine or shellfish
B. Blood glucose
C. Bowel sounds
D. Skin turgor
Answer: A
Rationale: Fluorescein angiography uses a dye; assess for
allergies, though fluorescein is not iodine-based but may still
cause reactions.
