Page 1 of 90
WEST COAST UNIVERSITY OB NURS 306 EXAM LATEST
VERSION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026 EDITION
West Coast University OB NURS 306 Exam Bank
250 Questions with Detailed Rationales
SECTION 1: REPRODUCTIVE ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, AND CONCEPTION
(Questions 1-25)
Question 1
A nurse is providing education to a patient about ovulation and fertilization. The
nurse explains that fertilization of the ovum typically occurs in which anatomical
structure?
A) The ovary, where the ovum is released during ovulation
B) The fallopian tube, specifically the ampullary portion where the sperm and ovum
meet
C) The uterus, where implantation occurs after fertilization
D) The cervix, where sperm must pass before reaching the ovum
Answer: B
Rationale: Fertilization typically occurs in the ampullary portion of the fallopian tube.
The ovum is released from the ovary during ovulation and is swept into the fallopian
tube, where it meets the sperm. The fertilized ovum then travels to the uterus for
implantation.
Question 2
A patient who is trying to conceive asks the nurse about the timing of ovulation. The
nurse explains that ovulation typically occurs at which point in the menstrual
cycle?
A) Approximately 14 days before the onset of the next menstrual period
B) Approximately 14 days after the onset of the last menstrual period
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C) At the midpoint of the follicular phase
D) Immediately following the luteal phase
Answer: A
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the onset of the
next menstrual period, regardless of cycle length. For a 28-day cycle, this corresponds
to day 14. This is the most fertile time of the menstrual cycle.
Question 3
A nurse is providing education to a patient about the function of the placenta
during pregnancy. Which statement accurately describes the role of the placenta?
A) The placenta produces estrogen and progesterone and facilitates the exchange of
oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and fetus
B) The placenta provides the primary source of nutrition for the fetus through the
amniotic fluid
C) The placenta is responsible for the production of human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG) only
D) The placenta functions as a barrier that prevents all substances from reaching the
fetus
Answer: A
Rationale: The placenta serves multiple critical functions: it produces hormones such
as estrogen, progesterone, and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG); it facilitates the
exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between maternal and fetal
circulation; and it provides some immune protection to the fetus.
Question 4
A patient who is 6 weeks pregnant asks the nurse about the development of her
baby. The nurse explains that during the embryonic period (weeks 3-8), which
critical development occurs?
A) The fetus grows rapidly in size and weight
B) All major organ systems begin to form, making the embryo most vulnerable to
teratogens
C) The fetus becomes viable and can survive outside the uterus
D) The fetus develops lanugo and vernix caseosa
Answer: B
Rationale: During the embryonic period (weeks 3-8), all major organ systems begin to
form, including the neural tube, heart, and limbs. This is the period of greatest
vulnerability to teratogens, as exposure can cause major structural abnormalities.
, Page 3 of 90
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient's understanding of the menstrual cycle. The patient
correctly identifies that the luteal phase is characterized by which event?
A) Follicular growth and maturation
B) Ovulation and release of the ovum
C) Secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum
D) Proliferation of the endometrial lining
Answer: C
Rationale: The luteal phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by secretion of
progesterone by the corpus luteum. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for
implantation. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, and
progesterone levels drop, leading to menstruation.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a patient about genetic inheritance. The nurse explains that
autosomal dominant disorders are characterized by which pattern of inheritance?
A) Both parents must be carriers for the child to be affected
B) An affected parent has a 50% chance of passing the disorder to each child
C) The disorder is passed from mother to son only
D) The disorder affects only males
Answer: B
Rationale: Autosomal dominant disorders require only one copy of the mutated gene
for the disorder to be expressed. An affected parent has a 50% chance of passing the
disorder to each child, regardless of the child's sex.
Question 7
A patient who is 10 weeks pregnant is scheduled for chorionic villus sampling
(CVS). The nurse explains that this test can detect which conditions?
A) Fetal lung maturity and amniotic fluid volume
B) Chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders
C) Neural tube defects and gestational diabetes
D) Fetal anemia and Rh incompatibility
Answer: B
Rationale: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can detect chromosomal abnormalities
such as Down syndrome and genetic disorders by analyzing tissue from the chorionic
villi. CVS is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation.
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Question 8
A nurse is assessing a patient's knowledge of teratogens. The patient correctly
identifies that which substance is a known teratogen that can cause fetal alcohol
spectrum disorders?
A) Caffeine in moderate amounts
B) Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
C) Nicotine in tobacco products
D) Artificial sweeteners
Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol is a known teratogen that can cause fetal alcohol spectrum
disorders (FASD), which include growth restriction, facial abnormalities, and central
nervous system dysfunction. There is no known safe amount of alcohol during
pregnancy.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant and notes that the patient is
Rh-negative. The nurse should provide education about which intervention to
prevent Rh isoimmunization?
A) Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours of birth if
the newborn is Rh-positive
B) Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) only at the time of delivery
C) A blood transfusion at the time of delivery
D) Anticoagulant therapy throughout the pregnancy
Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative patients should receive Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) at
approximately 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after birth if the newborn is Rh-
positive. This prevents maternal sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn in
subsequent pregnancies.
Question 10
A patient who is 12 weeks pregnant asks the nurse about the fetal heartbeat. The
nurse explains that the fetal heart can first be detected by Doppler ultrasound at
approximately which gestational age?
A) 6-8 weeks
B) 10-12 weeks
WEST COAST UNIVERSITY OB NURS 306 EXAM LATEST
VERSION QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS 2026 EDITION
West Coast University OB NURS 306 Exam Bank
250 Questions with Detailed Rationales
SECTION 1: REPRODUCTIVE ANATOMY, PHYSIOLOGY, AND CONCEPTION
(Questions 1-25)
Question 1
A nurse is providing education to a patient about ovulation and fertilization. The
nurse explains that fertilization of the ovum typically occurs in which anatomical
structure?
A) The ovary, where the ovum is released during ovulation
B) The fallopian tube, specifically the ampullary portion where the sperm and ovum
meet
C) The uterus, where implantation occurs after fertilization
D) The cervix, where sperm must pass before reaching the ovum
Answer: B
Rationale: Fertilization typically occurs in the ampullary portion of the fallopian tube.
The ovum is released from the ovary during ovulation and is swept into the fallopian
tube, where it meets the sperm. The fertilized ovum then travels to the uterus for
implantation.
Question 2
A patient who is trying to conceive asks the nurse about the timing of ovulation. The
nurse explains that ovulation typically occurs at which point in the menstrual
cycle?
A) Approximately 14 days before the onset of the next menstrual period
B) Approximately 14 days after the onset of the last menstrual period
, Page 2 of 90
C) At the midpoint of the follicular phase
D) Immediately following the luteal phase
Answer: A
Rationale: Ovulation typically occurs approximately 14 days before the onset of the
next menstrual period, regardless of cycle length. For a 28-day cycle, this corresponds
to day 14. This is the most fertile time of the menstrual cycle.
Question 3
A nurse is providing education to a patient about the function of the placenta
during pregnancy. Which statement accurately describes the role of the placenta?
A) The placenta produces estrogen and progesterone and facilitates the exchange of
oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the mother and fetus
B) The placenta provides the primary source of nutrition for the fetus through the
amniotic fluid
C) The placenta is responsible for the production of human chorionic gonadotropin
(hCG) only
D) The placenta functions as a barrier that prevents all substances from reaching the
fetus
Answer: A
Rationale: The placenta serves multiple critical functions: it produces hormones such
as estrogen, progesterone, and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG); it facilitates the
exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between maternal and fetal
circulation; and it provides some immune protection to the fetus.
Question 4
A patient who is 6 weeks pregnant asks the nurse about the development of her
baby. The nurse explains that during the embryonic period (weeks 3-8), which
critical development occurs?
A) The fetus grows rapidly in size and weight
B) All major organ systems begin to form, making the embryo most vulnerable to
teratogens
C) The fetus becomes viable and can survive outside the uterus
D) The fetus develops lanugo and vernix caseosa
Answer: B
Rationale: During the embryonic period (weeks 3-8), all major organ systems begin to
form, including the neural tube, heart, and limbs. This is the period of greatest
vulnerability to teratogens, as exposure can cause major structural abnormalities.
, Page 3 of 90
Question 5
A nurse is assessing a patient's understanding of the menstrual cycle. The patient
correctly identifies that the luteal phase is characterized by which event?
A) Follicular growth and maturation
B) Ovulation and release of the ovum
C) Secretion of progesterone by the corpus luteum
D) Proliferation of the endometrial lining
Answer: C
Rationale: The luteal phase occurs after ovulation and is characterized by secretion of
progesterone by the corpus luteum. Progesterone prepares the endometrium for
implantation. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum degenerates, and
progesterone levels drop, leading to menstruation.
Question 6
A nurse is teaching a patient about genetic inheritance. The nurse explains that
autosomal dominant disorders are characterized by which pattern of inheritance?
A) Both parents must be carriers for the child to be affected
B) An affected parent has a 50% chance of passing the disorder to each child
C) The disorder is passed from mother to son only
D) The disorder affects only males
Answer: B
Rationale: Autosomal dominant disorders require only one copy of the mutated gene
for the disorder to be expressed. An affected parent has a 50% chance of passing the
disorder to each child, regardless of the child's sex.
Question 7
A patient who is 10 weeks pregnant is scheduled for chorionic villus sampling
(CVS). The nurse explains that this test can detect which conditions?
A) Fetal lung maturity and amniotic fluid volume
B) Chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders
C) Neural tube defects and gestational diabetes
D) Fetal anemia and Rh incompatibility
Answer: B
Rationale: Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) can detect chromosomal abnormalities
such as Down syndrome and genetic disorders by analyzing tissue from the chorionic
villi. CVS is typically performed between 10 and 13 weeks of gestation.
, Page 4 of 90
Question 8
A nurse is assessing a patient's knowledge of teratogens. The patient correctly
identifies that which substance is a known teratogen that can cause fetal alcohol
spectrum disorders?
A) Caffeine in moderate amounts
B) Alcohol consumption during pregnancy
C) Nicotine in tobacco products
D) Artificial sweeteners
Answer: B
Rationale: Alcohol is a known teratogen that can cause fetal alcohol spectrum
disorders (FASD), which include growth restriction, facial abnormalities, and central
nervous system dysfunction. There is no known safe amount of alcohol during
pregnancy.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a patient who is 8 weeks pregnant and notes that the patient is
Rh-negative. The nurse should provide education about which intervention to
prevent Rh isoimmunization?
A) Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours of birth if
the newborn is Rh-positive
B) Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) only at the time of delivery
C) A blood transfusion at the time of delivery
D) Anticoagulant therapy throughout the pregnancy
Answer: A
Rationale: Rh-negative patients should receive Rh immune globulin (RhoGAM) at
approximately 28 weeks gestation and within 72 hours after birth if the newborn is Rh-
positive. This prevents maternal sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn in
subsequent pregnancies.
Question 10
A patient who is 12 weeks pregnant asks the nurse about the fetal heartbeat. The
nurse explains that the fetal heart can first be detected by Doppler ultrasound at
approximately which gestational age?
A) 6-8 weeks
B) 10-12 weeks
