NURSING GRADUATE
NR 601 Final Exam 2026/2027 Expected Questions & Revised
Correct Answers. (2026/2027) 100% Guarantee Pass
2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders in Aging
Gastrointestinal & Genitourinary Disorders
Neuropsychiatric Disorders
Musculoskeletal Disorders
Geriatric Syndromes, Polypharmacy & Preventive Care
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION 1: Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders in Aging
Q1
Q1. A 72-year-old with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.1% on metformin. eGFR is 48 mL/min/1.73 m2 and the
patient has established ASCVD. Which pharmacologic addition is most appropriate according to current
guidelines?
A. An SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven cardiovascular benefit, dosed appropriately for renal
function.
B. A sulfonylurea chosen only for lowest cost without cardiovascular benefit data.
C. Sliding-scale insulin alone without basal coverage or oral optimization.
D. A thiazolidinedione despite heart failure risk concerns.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Patients with T2DM and ASCVD benefit from SGLT2i or GLP-1 RA with CV outcome data. Sulfonylureas lack this benefit;
insulin-only or TZDs are less preferred in this context.
Q2
Q2. A 68-year-old reports fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation. TSH is 12.4 mIU/L with low free T4. Which
initial management is appropriate?
A. Start high-dose liothyronine (T3) monotherapy immediately.
B. Initiate levothyroxine replacement and recheck TSH in 6-8 weeks, using age-appropriate dosing caution in older
adults.
C. Observe without treatment because subclinical findings are always benign.
D. Order radioactive iodine ablation as first-line therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Overt hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine; older adults often start lower doses. T3 monotherapy and ablation are
not first-line for primary hypothyroidism.
Q3
Q3. A 55-year-old perimenopausal woman reports hot flashes, sleep disturbance, and vaginal dryness. She has
no history of breast cancer, VTE, or coronary disease. Which counseling point is accurate regarding menopausal
hormone therapy?
A. Systemic HT is absolutely contraindicated for all women after age 50.
B. Vaginal estrogen is never appropriate for genitourinary symptoms.
C. For appropriately selected women with bothersome vasomotor symptoms, systemic HT can be considered after
individualized risk-benefit discussion, using the lowest effective dose for the shortest necessary duration.
D. Bioidentical compounded hormones are proven safer than FDA-approved preparations.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Guidelines support individualized HT for moderate-severe vasomotor symptoms in eligible women; local estrogen is
preferred for isolated GSM. Compounded products lack the same evidence of safety/efficacy.
NR 601 Final Exam 2026/2027 Expected Questions & Revised Correct ... Page 2
, Q4
Q4. An older adult with diabetes on insulin presents with recurrent hypoglycemia. Which adjustment strategy is
most appropriate?
A. Increase overall insulin doses to tighten control further.
B. Ignore mild hypoglycemia because it is expected in older adults.
C. Add a sulfonylurea to the insulin regimen.
D. Reassess targets (less stringent A1C may be appropriate), simplify regimen, and address timing, renal function,
and meal patterns contributing to lows.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Hypoglycemia risk rises with age and comorbidities; de-intensification and simplified regimens reduce harm while
maintaining reasonable control.
Q5
Q5. A 70-year-old has a fasting glucose of 118 mg/dL and A1C of 6.2%. Which interpretation and next step fit
prediabetes management?
A. Recognize prediabetes; emphasize intensive lifestyle intervention and consider metformin in selected high-risk
patients per guidelines.
B. Diagnose diabetes and start insulin immediately.
C. Reassure that no follow-up is needed for five years.
D. Order a 3-hour GTT as the only acceptable confirmatory test.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Prediabetes warrants lifestyle intervention as first-line; metformin may be considered for higher-risk individuals. Diabetes
diagnostic thresholds are not met.
Q6
Q6. A patient with longstanding T2DM develops progressive albuminuria and declining eGFR. Which medication
class has evidence for slowing CKD progression in diabetes?
A. Sulfonylureas exclusively.
B. SGLT2 inhibitors (and in appropriate patients ACEI/ARB, and nonsteroidal MRA when indicated).
C. First-generation antihistamines.
D. Short-acting insulin secretagogues only.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
SGLT2 inhibitors reduce progression of diabetic kidney disease; RAAS blockade remains foundational for albuminuric CKD.
NR 601 Final Exam 2026/2027 Expected Questions & Revised Correct ... Page 3
NR 601 Final Exam 2026/2027 Expected Questions & Revised
Correct Answers. (2026/2027) 100% Guarantee Pass
2026/2027
A+
Complete Blueprint Coverage
A+ 5 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED CORE DOMAINS COVERED RATIONALES INCLUDED
CATEGORIES
Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders in Aging
Gastrointestinal & Genitourinary Disorders
Neuropsychiatric Disorders
Musculoskeletal Disorders
Geriatric Syndromes, Polypharmacy & Preventive Care
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, SECTION 1: Endocrine & Metabolic Disorders in Aging
Q1
Q1. A 72-year-old with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 8.1% on metformin. eGFR is 48 mL/min/1.73 m2 and the
patient has established ASCVD. Which pharmacologic addition is most appropriate according to current
guidelines?
A. An SGLT2 inhibitor or GLP-1 receptor agonist with proven cardiovascular benefit, dosed appropriately for renal
function.
B. A sulfonylurea chosen only for lowest cost without cardiovascular benefit data.
C. Sliding-scale insulin alone without basal coverage or oral optimization.
D. A thiazolidinedione despite heart failure risk concerns.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Patients with T2DM and ASCVD benefit from SGLT2i or GLP-1 RA with CV outcome data. Sulfonylureas lack this benefit;
insulin-only or TZDs are less preferred in this context.
Q2
Q2. A 68-year-old reports fatigue, cold intolerance, and constipation. TSH is 12.4 mIU/L with low free T4. Which
initial management is appropriate?
A. Start high-dose liothyronine (T3) monotherapy immediately.
B. Initiate levothyroxine replacement and recheck TSH in 6-8 weeks, using age-appropriate dosing caution in older
adults.
C. Observe without treatment because subclinical findings are always benign.
D. Order radioactive iodine ablation as first-line therapy.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Overt hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine; older adults often start lower doses. T3 monotherapy and ablation are
not first-line for primary hypothyroidism.
Q3
Q3. A 55-year-old perimenopausal woman reports hot flashes, sleep disturbance, and vaginal dryness. She has
no history of breast cancer, VTE, or coronary disease. Which counseling point is accurate regarding menopausal
hormone therapy?
A. Systemic HT is absolutely contraindicated for all women after age 50.
B. Vaginal estrogen is never appropriate for genitourinary symptoms.
C. For appropriately selected women with bothersome vasomotor symptoms, systemic HT can be considered after
individualized risk-benefit discussion, using the lowest effective dose for the shortest necessary duration.
D. Bioidentical compounded hormones are proven safer than FDA-approved preparations.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Guidelines support individualized HT for moderate-severe vasomotor symptoms in eligible women; local estrogen is
preferred for isolated GSM. Compounded products lack the same evidence of safety/efficacy.
NR 601 Final Exam 2026/2027 Expected Questions & Revised Correct ... Page 2
, Q4
Q4. An older adult with diabetes on insulin presents with recurrent hypoglycemia. Which adjustment strategy is
most appropriate?
A. Increase overall insulin doses to tighten control further.
B. Ignore mild hypoglycemia because it is expected in older adults.
C. Add a sulfonylurea to the insulin regimen.
D. Reassess targets (less stringent A1C may be appropriate), simplify regimen, and address timing, renal function,
and meal patterns contributing to lows.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Hypoglycemia risk rises with age and comorbidities; de-intensification and simplified regimens reduce harm while
maintaining reasonable control.
Q5
Q5. A 70-year-old has a fasting glucose of 118 mg/dL and A1C of 6.2%. Which interpretation and next step fit
prediabetes management?
A. Recognize prediabetes; emphasize intensive lifestyle intervention and consider metformin in selected high-risk
patients per guidelines.
B. Diagnose diabetes and start insulin immediately.
C. Reassure that no follow-up is needed for five years.
D. Order a 3-hour GTT as the only acceptable confirmatory test.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Prediabetes warrants lifestyle intervention as first-line; metformin may be considered for higher-risk individuals. Diabetes
diagnostic thresholds are not met.
Q6
Q6. A patient with longstanding T2DM develops progressive albuminuria and declining eGFR. Which medication
class has evidence for slowing CKD progression in diabetes?
A. Sulfonylureas exclusively.
B. SGLT2 inhibitors (and in appropriate patients ACEI/ARB, and nonsteroidal MRA when indicated).
C. First-generation antihistamines.
D. Short-acting insulin secretagogues only.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
SGLT2 inhibitors reduce progression of diabetic kidney disease; RAAS blockade remains foundational for albuminuric CKD.
NR 601 Final Exam 2026/2027 Expected Questions & Revised Correct ... Page 3
