Galen College NSG 3280 Exam 4 (pdf) | 2026/2027 | Pathophysiology
Q&A | Pathophysiology
1. A 20-year-old male presents with a painless, ulcerated lesion on the glans
penis. He reports having unprotected sex 3 weeks ago. Based on the
pathophysiology of Syphilis, which stage of the disease is this patient most
likely experiencing?
A) Secondary Syphilis
B) Latent Syphilis
C) Primary Syphilis
D) Tertiary Syphilis
Correct Answer: Primary Syphilis
Rationale: Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre—
a painless, ulcerated lesion—at the site of inoculation, typically appearing
10-90 days post-infection. Secondary syphilis involves a systemic rash, latent
syphilis is asymptomatic, and tertiary syphilis involves gummas and
neurosyphilis.
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the primary cause of Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
A) Neoplastic transformation of prostate epithelial cells
B) Hypertrophy of the prostate due to infection
C) Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging hormones
D) Atrophy of the glandular tissue leading to inflammation
Correct Answer: Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging
hormones
,Rationale: BPH is not cancer (neoplasia). It is the hyperplasia (increase in cell
number) of the glands surrounding the urethra, driven by hormonal changes
in aging, specifically the ratio of estrogen to testosterone and the
accumulation of Dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
3. A patient is diagnosed with Testicular Torsion. Why is this condition
considered a urologic emergency?
A) It causes immediate sterility due to an autoimmune reaction.
B) The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, leading to
ischemia and potential testicular infarction.
C) It indicates the presence of aggressive testicular cancer.
D) It causes a systemic infection that leads to sepsis within hours.
Correct Answer: The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood
vessels, leading to ischemia and potential testicular infarction.
Rationale: Torsion twists the spermatic cord, cutting off arterial blood supply
and venous drainage. If not resolved quickly (usually < 6 hours), ischemia
leads to necrosis (infarction) and permanent loss of the testicle.
4. Which viral pathogen is most strongly associated with the development of
cervical cancer?
A) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
Correct Answer: Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
,Rationale: Certain high-risk strains of HPV are a major cause of cervical
cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to abnormal cell
changes in the cervix.
5. A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis, dysuria, and purulent urethral
discharge. The suspected diagnosis would be:
A) Gonorrhea
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Prostatitis
D) Epididymitis
Correct Answer: Gonorrhea
Rationale: Urethritis with purulent discharge is a classic presentation of
gonorrhea, a common sexually transmitted infection. While prostatitis and
epididymitis can cause pain, they are less likely to present with such
prominent discharge. A UTI is less common in young males without risk
factors.
6. A patient is diagnosed with Epididymitis. The nurse understands that this
condition is most commonly caused by:
A) A viral infection
B) Bacterial organisms, including sexually transmitted organisms
C) A fungal infection
D) A parasitic infection
Correct Answer: Bacterial organisms, including sexually transmitted
organisms
, Rationale: Epididymitis is often caused by bacterial infection, with sexually
transmitted organisms like *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and *Chlamydia
trachomatis* being common causes in young, sexually active males. In older
men, it is often associated with urinary tract pathogens.
7. A nurse is assessing a patient with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).
Which clinical manifestation is most consistent with this condition?
A) Urinary incontinence
B) Urinary obstruction, decreased stream, and hesitancy
C) Polyuria and polydipsia
D) Flank pain and hematuria
Correct Answer: Urinary obstruction, decreased stream, and hesitancy
Rationale: BPH causes compression of the urethra, leading to obstructive
urinary symptoms such as a weak stream, hesitancy (difficulty starting
urination), and interruption of the stream.
8. A patient has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The nurse
suspects a structural abnormality. Which condition involves a fibrotic
narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue?
A) Phimosis
B) Varicocele
C) Urethral stricture
D) Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: Urethral stricture
Q&A | Pathophysiology
1. A 20-year-old male presents with a painless, ulcerated lesion on the glans
penis. He reports having unprotected sex 3 weeks ago. Based on the
pathophysiology of Syphilis, which stage of the disease is this patient most
likely experiencing?
A) Secondary Syphilis
B) Latent Syphilis
C) Primary Syphilis
D) Tertiary Syphilis
Correct Answer: Primary Syphilis
Rationale: Primary syphilis is characterized by the appearance of a chancre—
a painless, ulcerated lesion—at the site of inoculation, typically appearing
10-90 days post-infection. Secondary syphilis involves a systemic rash, latent
syphilis is asymptomatic, and tertiary syphilis involves gummas and
neurosyphilis.
2. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the primary cause of Benign
Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH)?
A) Neoplastic transformation of prostate epithelial cells
B) Hypertrophy of the prostate due to infection
C) Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging hormones
D) Atrophy of the glandular tissue leading to inflammation
Correct Answer: Hyperplasia of periurethral glands due to changes in aging
hormones
,Rationale: BPH is not cancer (neoplasia). It is the hyperplasia (increase in cell
number) of the glands surrounding the urethra, driven by hormonal changes
in aging, specifically the ratio of estrogen to testosterone and the
accumulation of Dihydrotestosterone (DHT).
3. A patient is diagnosed with Testicular Torsion. Why is this condition
considered a urologic emergency?
A) It causes immediate sterility due to an autoimmune reaction.
B) The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood vessels, leading to
ischemia and potential testicular infarction.
C) It indicates the presence of aggressive testicular cancer.
D) It causes a systemic infection that leads to sepsis within hours.
Correct Answer: The twisting of the spermatic cord compresses blood
vessels, leading to ischemia and potential testicular infarction.
Rationale: Torsion twists the spermatic cord, cutting off arterial blood supply
and venous drainage. If not resolved quickly (usually < 6 hours), ischemia
leads to necrosis (infarction) and permanent loss of the testicle.
4. Which viral pathogen is most strongly associated with the development of
cervical cancer?
A) Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)
B) Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
C) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
D) Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV)
Correct Answer: Human Papillomavirus (HPV)
,Rationale: Certain high-risk strains of HPV are a major cause of cervical
cancer. HPV is a sexually transmitted infection that can lead to abnormal cell
changes in the cervix.
5. A 23-year-old male presents with urethritis, dysuria, and purulent urethral
discharge. The suspected diagnosis would be:
A) Gonorrhea
B) Urinary tract infection
C) Prostatitis
D) Epididymitis
Correct Answer: Gonorrhea
Rationale: Urethritis with purulent discharge is a classic presentation of
gonorrhea, a common sexually transmitted infection. While prostatitis and
epididymitis can cause pain, they are less likely to present with such
prominent discharge. A UTI is less common in young males without risk
factors.
6. A patient is diagnosed with Epididymitis. The nurse understands that this
condition is most commonly caused by:
A) A viral infection
B) Bacterial organisms, including sexually transmitted organisms
C) A fungal infection
D) A parasitic infection
Correct Answer: Bacterial organisms, including sexually transmitted
organisms
, Rationale: Epididymitis is often caused by bacterial infection, with sexually
transmitted organisms like *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* and *Chlamydia
trachomatis* being common causes in young, sexually active males. In older
men, it is often associated with urinary tract pathogens.
7. A nurse is assessing a patient with Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH).
Which clinical manifestation is most consistent with this condition?
A) Urinary incontinence
B) Urinary obstruction, decreased stream, and hesitancy
C) Polyuria and polydipsia
D) Flank pain and hematuria
Correct Answer: Urinary obstruction, decreased stream, and hesitancy
Rationale: BPH causes compression of the urethra, leading to obstructive
urinary symptoms such as a weak stream, hesitancy (difficulty starting
urination), and interruption of the stream.
8. A patient has a history of recurrent urinary tract infections. The nurse
suspects a structural abnormality. Which condition involves a fibrotic
narrowing of the urethra caused by scar tissue?
A) Phimosis
B) Varicocele
C) Urethral stricture
D) Cryptorchidism
Correct Answer: Urethral stricture
