NUR 254 Exams 1, 2, 3 & 4 | Galen College | 2026/2027
Complete Maternal & Pediatric Nursing Bundle 2026/2027
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CATEGORIES
Antepartum Care
Intrapartum Care
Postpartum Care
Newborn Care
Pediatric Nursing
STUVIAACTUALEXAM
, ANTEPARTUM CARE
Question 1
A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents for her first prenatal visit. She reports mild nausea and has a
pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. The nurse reviews her laboratory results and notes a hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL. Which
intervention should the nurse prioritize in the teaching plan for this client?
A. Recommend immediate iron supplementation and dietary counseling for anemia.
B. Advise the client that her hemoglobin is within expected range for early pregnancy.
C. Schedule a follow-up complete blood count within one week to reassess values.
D. Instruct the client to increase red meat intake and avoid prenatal vitamins temporarily.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Physiologic anemia of pregnancy begins in the first trimester due to plasma volume expansion outpacing red cell mass increase;
hemoglobin of 11.8 g/dL is acceptable early in pregnancy. Immediate iron therapy is not indicated unless values fall below
established thresholds later in gestation.
Question 2
A client at 24 weeks gestation undergoes a one-hour glucose challenge test and the result is 148 mg/dL. The nurse
explains the next step in screening for gestational diabetes. Which statement by the nurse is most accurate?
A. A three-hour glucose tolerance test is required because the value exceeds 140 mg/dL.
B. No further testing is needed since the result is below the 180 mg/dL diagnostic cutoff.
C. The client should begin insulin therapy immediately based on this screening result alone.
D. Repeat the one-hour test in two weeks to confirm the elevated finding before proceeding.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
A one-hour glucose challenge result of 140 mg/dL or higher typically prompts a diagnostic three-hour oral glucose tolerance test. The
screening test is not diagnostic; insulin is not initiated solely on a screening value.
Question 3
During a routine prenatal visit at 32 weeks, a multiparous client reports sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding. The
nurse notes a soft, nontender uterus and stable vital signs. Which condition does the nurse suspect as the most likely
cause?
A. Placental abruption with concealed hemorrhage
B. Uterine rupture secondary to previous cesarean scar
C. Placenta previa with marginal implantation
D. Vasa previa with vessel rupture during examination
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Painless bright-red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester with a soft uterus is classic for placenta previa. Abruption typically presents
with pain and a firm uterus; uterine rupture is associated with severe pain and hemodynamic instability.
NUR 254 Exams 1, 2, 3 & 4 | Galen College | 2026/2027 Complete Maternal & Pediatric Nursing Bundle 2026/2027 Page 2
, ANTEPARTUM CARE
Question 4
A pregnant client at 18 weeks gestation is diagnosed with mild preeclampsia. The nurse educates her about home
monitoring. Which finding should the client report to the clinic immediately?
A. Mild ankle edema that resolves with elevation after resting
B. A 2-pound weight gain over three consecutive days
C. Occasional mild headache relieved by acetaminophen
D. New onset of visual changes or epigastric pain
Correct Answer: D
Rationale:
Visual disturbances and epigastric or right-upper-quadrant pain are warning signs of worsening preeclampsia that may progress to
severe features or HELLP syndrome. Mild edema and small weight gains are common; headaches require evaluation if persistent or
severe.
Question 5
A 34-year-old client at 10 weeks gestation has a history of two previous spontaneous abortions. She asks about the
purpose of progesterone supplementation prescribed by her provider. Which response by the nurse is most
appropriate?
A. Progesterone prevents chromosomal abnormalities that caused prior losses.
B. The medication supports the endometrial lining to help maintain the pregnancy.
C. Progesterone reduces the risk of gestational diabetes in subsequent pregnancies.
D. It is primarily used to lower blood pressure and prevent preeclampsia later.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Progesterone supports the decidualized endometrium and may help maintain early pregnancy in selected patients with recurrent loss.
It does not correct chromosomal defects or prevent gestational diabetes or preeclampsia.
Question 6
A client at 28 weeks gestation is scheduled for an ultrasound to assess fetal growth after fundal height measures 2 cm
less than expected. The nurse prepares teaching about the biophysical profile. Which component is included in a
standard biophysical profile?
A. Amniotic fluid volume, fetal breathing, tone, movement, and nonstress test
B. Maternal blood pressure, urine protein, and fetal heart rate baseline only
C. Doppler velocimetry of the umbilical artery and middle cerebral artery
D. Three-dimensional facial imaging and nuchal translucency measurement
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The biophysical profile evaluates five parameters: fetal breathing movements, gross body movements, fetal tone, amniotic fluid
volume, and the nonstress test. Each parameter receives a score of 0 or 2.
NUR 254 Exams 1, 2, 3 & 4 | Galen College | 2026/2027 Complete Maternal & Pediatric Nursing Bundle 2026/2027 Page 3