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HESI PN EXIT EXAM (V7) - ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 |
NGN-STYLE | EXPERT VERIFIED | 75 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
QUESTION 1
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with preeclampsia. Which finding should the PN report
immediately?
A. Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg
B. Mild ankle edema
C. Urine protein of 1+
D. Headache that resolves with rest
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg indicates severe preeclampsia and requires immediate
intervention. Mild ankle edema, urine protein of 1+, and headache that resolves with rest are expected
findings in preeclampsia but do not require immediate intervention.
QUESTION 2
The PN is caring for a postpartum client who is Rh-negative and has given birth to an Rh-positive infant.
Which medication should the PN expect to administer?
A. Rh₀(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
B. Methylergonovine (Methergine)
C. Hepatitis B vaccine
D. Vitamin K
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers after delivery of an Rh-positive infant to prevent
maternal sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. It should be given within
72 hours of delivery.
QUESTION 3
A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which dietary instruction should the PN reinforce?
A. The infant should be placed on a low-phenylalanine formula
B. The infant should receive breast milk only
,2
C. The infant should receive a soy-based formula
D. The infant should receive a standard cow's milk formula
Rationale: PKU is a metabolic disorder that requires a low-phenylalanine diet. Infants with PKU should be
placed on a special low-phenylalanine formula. Breast milk and standard formulas contain phenylalanine and
are not appropriate.
QUESTION 4
The PN is caring for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia. Which intervention is most important?
A. Phototherapy
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Administration of phenobarbital
D. Increased oral feedings
Rationale: Phototherapy is the first-line treatment for hyperbilirubinemia in newborns. Exchange transfusion
is reserved for severe cases. Phenobarbital may be used for conjugation defects, and increased oral feedings
help promote excretion but are not the primary treatment.
QUESTION 5
A mother reports that her 6-month-old infant has been irritable, has a fever, and is pulling at the ears. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with otitis media?
A. Bulging, red tympanic membrane
B. Clear, non-bulging tympanic membrane
C. Excessive cerumen in the ear canal
D. Normal tympanic membrane
Rationale: Otitis media is characterized by a bulging, red tympanic membrane. A clear, non-bulging tympanic
membrane and excessive cerumen are not consistent with otitis media. The infant's symptoms of irritability,
fever, and ear pulling are consistent with otitis media.
QUESTION 6
A client at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with a diagnosis of placenta previa. Which assessment finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
B. Mild uterine contractions
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C. Fetal heart rate of 150 bpm
D. Maternal blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding is a classic sign of placenta previa and requires immediate
intervention. Mild uterine contractions, fetal heart rate of 150 bpm, and maternal blood pressure of 130/80
mmHg are expected findings.
QUESTION 7
The PN is caring for a newborn with a cleft lip and palate. Which feeding intervention should the PN
implement?
A. Use a special feeder with a soft nipple
B. Feed the infant in a supine position
C. Use a standard bottle and nipple
D. Feed the infant with a spoon
Rationale: Infants with a cleft lip and palate may have difficulty feeding due to the inability to create a seal. A
special feeder with a soft nipple can help. The infant should be fed in an upright position to prevent aspiration.
QUESTION 8
A client at 39 weeks gestation is in active labor. Which finding indicates that the client is ready to push?
A. Complete cervical dilation (10 cm)
B. Cervical dilation of 8 cm
C. Cervical effacement of 90%
D. Contractions every 5 minutes
Rationale: The client is ready to push when the cervix is completely dilated (10 cm). Cervical dilation of 8 cm
is still in the transition phase, and the client should not push until complete dilation is achieved.
QUESTION 9
The PN is caring for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Which finding is most consistent
with NAS?
A. Irritability and high-pitched cry
B. Sleepiness and lethargy
C. Decreased muscle tone
D. Hypothermia
HESI PN EXIT EXAM (V7) - ACTUAL EXAM 2026/2027 |
NGN-STYLE | EXPERT VERIFIED | 75 VERIFIED Q&A |
DETAILED RATIONALES | PASS GUARANTEED - A+
GRADED
QUESTION 1
A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with preeclampsia. Which finding should the PN report
immediately?
A. Blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg
B. Mild ankle edema
C. Urine protein of 1+
D. Headache that resolves with rest
Rationale: A blood pressure of 160/110 mmHg indicates severe preeclampsia and requires immediate
intervention. Mild ankle edema, urine protein of 1+, and headache that resolves with rest are expected
findings in preeclampsia but do not require immediate intervention.
QUESTION 2
The PN is caring for a postpartum client who is Rh-negative and has given birth to an Rh-positive infant.
Which medication should the PN expect to administer?
A. Rh₀(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM)
B. Methylergonovine (Methergine)
C. Hepatitis B vaccine
D. Vitamin K
Rationale: RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers after delivery of an Rh-positive infant to prevent
maternal sensitization and hemolytic disease of the newborn in future pregnancies. It should be given within
72 hours of delivery.
QUESTION 3
A newborn is diagnosed with phenylketonuria (PKU). Which dietary instruction should the PN reinforce?
A. The infant should be placed on a low-phenylalanine formula
B. The infant should receive breast milk only
,2
C. The infant should receive a soy-based formula
D. The infant should receive a standard cow's milk formula
Rationale: PKU is a metabolic disorder that requires a low-phenylalanine diet. Infants with PKU should be
placed on a special low-phenylalanine formula. Breast milk and standard formulas contain phenylalanine and
are not appropriate.
QUESTION 4
The PN is caring for a newborn with hyperbilirubinemia. Which intervention is most important?
A. Phototherapy
B. Exchange transfusion
C. Administration of phenobarbital
D. Increased oral feedings
Rationale: Phototherapy is the first-line treatment for hyperbilirubinemia in newborns. Exchange transfusion
is reserved for severe cases. Phenobarbital may be used for conjugation defects, and increased oral feedings
help promote excretion but are not the primary treatment.
QUESTION 5
A mother reports that her 6-month-old infant has been irritable, has a fever, and is pulling at the ears. Which
assessment finding is most consistent with otitis media?
A. Bulging, red tympanic membrane
B. Clear, non-bulging tympanic membrane
C. Excessive cerumen in the ear canal
D. Normal tympanic membrane
Rationale: Otitis media is characterized by a bulging, red tympanic membrane. A clear, non-bulging tympanic
membrane and excessive cerumen are not consistent with otitis media. The infant's symptoms of irritability,
fever, and ear pulling are consistent with otitis media.
QUESTION 6
A client at 36 weeks gestation is admitted with a diagnosis of placenta previa. Which assessment finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Painless bright red vaginal bleeding
B. Mild uterine contractions
, 3
C. Fetal heart rate of 150 bpm
D. Maternal blood pressure of 130/80 mmHg
Rationale: Painless bright red vaginal bleeding is a classic sign of placenta previa and requires immediate
intervention. Mild uterine contractions, fetal heart rate of 150 bpm, and maternal blood pressure of 130/80
mmHg are expected findings.
QUESTION 7
The PN is caring for a newborn with a cleft lip and palate. Which feeding intervention should the PN
implement?
A. Use a special feeder with a soft nipple
B. Feed the infant in a supine position
C. Use a standard bottle and nipple
D. Feed the infant with a spoon
Rationale: Infants with a cleft lip and palate may have difficulty feeding due to the inability to create a seal. A
special feeder with a soft nipple can help. The infant should be fed in an upright position to prevent aspiration.
QUESTION 8
A client at 39 weeks gestation is in active labor. Which finding indicates that the client is ready to push?
A. Complete cervical dilation (10 cm)
B. Cervical dilation of 8 cm
C. Cervical effacement of 90%
D. Contractions every 5 minutes
Rationale: The client is ready to push when the cervix is completely dilated (10 cm). Cervical dilation of 8 cm
is still in the transition phase, and the client should not push until complete dilation is achieved.
QUESTION 9
The PN is caring for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome (NAS). Which finding is most consistent
with NAS?
A. Irritability and high-pitched cry
B. Sleepiness and lethargy
C. Decreased muscle tone
D. Hypothermia
