,NR 667 CEA Midterm Exam | FNP Capstone Practicum
(2026) Q&A | Chamberlain College
1. A 25-year-old athlete presents with shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities.
Physical examination suggests shoulder impingement syndrome. What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and physical activity modification
B) Corticosteroid injection
C) Surgical intervention
D) Physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening
Correct Answer: A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and physical activity
modification
Rationale: Initial management of impingement syndrome includes NSAIDs, activity
modification, and ice. Physical therapy may be added if no improvement. Corticosteroid
injection is second-line. Surgery is reserved for refractory cases.
2. What A1C reading indicates a diagnosis of diabetes according to ADA criteria?
A) 5.7%
B) 6.5% or greater
C) 6.0%
D) 7.0%
Correct Answer: B) 6.5% or greater
Rationale: ADA diagnostic criteria include A1C ≥6.5%. Prediabetes is 5.7-6.4%. Well-controlled
diabetes target is generally ≤7% for many adults. The threshold distinguishes diabetes.
,3. What is the first-line medication for a patient with newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetes and no
contraindications?
A) Insulin
B) Sulfonylurea
C) Metformin
D) GLP-1 agonist
Correct Answer: C) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin is the preferred initial pharmacotherapy due to efficacy, low
hypoglycemia risk, weight neutrality, and cardiovascular benefits. Insulin, sulfonylureas, and
GLP-1 agonists are added when metformin is insufficient.
4. Which antibiotic is the most appropriate first-line treatment for an uncomplicated urinary
tract infection in a premenopausal woman?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Azithromycin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: D) Nitrofurantoin
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is recommended as first-line for uncomplicated cystitis due to low
resistance rates. Fluoroquinolones are not first-line due to adverse effects. Amoxicillin is less
effective. TMP-SMX can be used if local resistance <20%.
5. A patient with asthma reports using albuterol more than 2 days per week for symptom
relief, not including pre-exercise use. According to NAEPP guidelines, this indicates:
A) Poorly controlled asthma requiring step-up therapy
, B) Well-controlled asthma
C) Normal variation
D) Mild intermittent asthma
Correct Answer: A) Poorly controlled asthma requiring step-up therapy
Rationale: Using a rescue inhaler >2 days/week for symptoms indicates poor control and
warrants stepping up controller therapy. Good control is defined by ≤2 days/week use. This
assessment prevents exacerbations.
6. An FNP student spends time reviewing a patient’s electronic health record and researching
a rare diagnosis before presenting to the preceptor. How should this time be logged in
Typhon?
A) Direct patient care hours
B) Non-clinical academic hours
C) Indirect/Non-patient care clinical hours
D) Simulation hours
Correct Answer: C) Indirect/Non-patient care clinical hours
Rationale: Indirect clinical hours include activities that support patient care but do not
involve face-to-face interaction, such as chart reviews and literature searches. Direct hours
require hands-on patient contact. This distinction is essential for program compliance.
7. An 18-year-old patient recently treated for streptococcal pharyngitis presents with cola-
colored urine and RBC casts on urinalysis. The FNP should diagnose:
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C) Nephrolithiasis
(2026) Q&A | Chamberlain College
1. A 25-year-old athlete presents with shoulder pain and difficulty with overhead activities.
Physical examination suggests shoulder impingement syndrome. What is the most
appropriate initial treatment?
A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and physical activity modification
B) Corticosteroid injection
C) Surgical intervention
D) Physical therapy focusing on rotator cuff strengthening
Correct Answer: A) Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and physical activity
modification
Rationale: Initial management of impingement syndrome includes NSAIDs, activity
modification, and ice. Physical therapy may be added if no improvement. Corticosteroid
injection is second-line. Surgery is reserved for refractory cases.
2. What A1C reading indicates a diagnosis of diabetes according to ADA criteria?
A) 5.7%
B) 6.5% or greater
C) 6.0%
D) 7.0%
Correct Answer: B) 6.5% or greater
Rationale: ADA diagnostic criteria include A1C ≥6.5%. Prediabetes is 5.7-6.4%. Well-controlled
diabetes target is generally ≤7% for many adults. The threshold distinguishes diabetes.
,3. What is the first-line medication for a patient with newly diagnosed Type 2 diabetes and no
contraindications?
A) Insulin
B) Sulfonylurea
C) Metformin
D) GLP-1 agonist
Correct Answer: C) Metformin
Rationale: Metformin is the preferred initial pharmacotherapy due to efficacy, low
hypoglycemia risk, weight neutrality, and cardiovascular benefits. Insulin, sulfonylureas, and
GLP-1 agonists are added when metformin is insufficient.
4. Which antibiotic is the most appropriate first-line treatment for an uncomplicated urinary
tract infection in a premenopausal woman?
A) Ciprofloxacin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Azithromycin
D) Nitrofurantoin
Correct Answer: D) Nitrofurantoin
Rationale: Nitrofurantoin is recommended as first-line for uncomplicated cystitis due to low
resistance rates. Fluoroquinolones are not first-line due to adverse effects. Amoxicillin is less
effective. TMP-SMX can be used if local resistance <20%.
5. A patient with asthma reports using albuterol more than 2 days per week for symptom
relief, not including pre-exercise use. According to NAEPP guidelines, this indicates:
A) Poorly controlled asthma requiring step-up therapy
, B) Well-controlled asthma
C) Normal variation
D) Mild intermittent asthma
Correct Answer: A) Poorly controlled asthma requiring step-up therapy
Rationale: Using a rescue inhaler >2 days/week for symptoms indicates poor control and
warrants stepping up controller therapy. Good control is defined by ≤2 days/week use. This
assessment prevents exacerbations.
6. An FNP student spends time reviewing a patient’s electronic health record and researching
a rare diagnosis before presenting to the preceptor. How should this time be logged in
Typhon?
A) Direct patient care hours
B) Non-clinical academic hours
C) Indirect/Non-patient care clinical hours
D) Simulation hours
Correct Answer: C) Indirect/Non-patient care clinical hours
Rationale: Indirect clinical hours include activities that support patient care but do not
involve face-to-face interaction, such as chart reviews and literature searches. Direct hours
require hands-on patient contact. This distinction is essential for program compliance.
7. An 18-year-old patient recently treated for streptococcal pharyngitis presents with cola-
colored urine and RBC casts on urinalysis. The FNP should diagnose:
A) Acute pyelonephritis
B) Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis
C) Nephrolithiasis
