NUR 376: COMPREHENSIVE NURSING
EXAMINATION PREP QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the
following laboratory findings is most characteristic of this condition?
A. Plasma glucose level of 150 mg/dL
B. Serum bicarbonate level of 28 mEq/L
C. Arterial pH of 7.25
D. Absence of ketones in the urine
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: DKA is characterized by metabolic acidosis, hence a low pH
(below 7.35). Other findings include hyperglycemia (usually >250 mg/dL), low
bicarbonate, and ketonuria.
2. A nurse is caring for a child with Tetralogy of Fallot. The child suddenly becomes cyanotic
and dyspneic. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Prepare for immediate intubation
,C. Place the child in a knee-chest position
D. Administer intravenous morphine
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance,
which helps reduce the right-to-left shunt and improves pulmonary blood flow during a
‘tet’ spell.
3. Which medication is considered the gold standard for treating a patient in acute
anaphylactic shock?
A. Diphenhydramine intramuscularly
B. Albuterol via nebulizer
C. Methylprednisolone intravenously
D. Epinephrine intramuscularly
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it
rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction and peripheral vasodilation.
4. A patient presents with a suspected tension pneumothorax. Which clinical sign is
considered a late and hallmark finding?
A. Tachypnea
B. Diminished breath sounds
, C. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side
D. Sudden chest pain
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Tracheal deviation is a late sign of tension pneumothorax,
indicating significant pressure buildup shifting the mediastinum.
5. In the management of a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), what is
the primary goal of using PEEP?
A. To decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
B. To prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration
C. To increase the patient’s respiratory rate
D. To decrease the work of breathing during inspiration
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) keeps alveoli open at
the end of expiration, improving gas exchange and oxygenation in ARDS.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
medication should the nurse expect to administer to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Calcium Gluconate
C. Insulin and Dextrose
EXAMINATION PREP QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. A patient is admitted with a diagnosis of Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the
following laboratory findings is most characteristic of this condition?
A. Plasma glucose level of 150 mg/dL
B. Serum bicarbonate level of 28 mEq/L
C. Arterial pH of 7.25
D. Absence of ketones in the urine
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: DKA is characterized by metabolic acidosis, hence a low pH
(below 7.35). Other findings include hyperglycemia (usually >250 mg/dL), low
bicarbonate, and ketonuria.
2. A nurse is caring for a child with Tetralogy of Fallot. The child suddenly becomes cyanotic
and dyspneic. Which action should the nurse take first?
A. Administer oxygen via face mask
B. Prepare for immediate intubation
,C. Place the child in a knee-chest position
D. Administer intravenous morphine
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: The knee-chest position increases systemic vascular resistance,
which helps reduce the right-to-left shunt and improves pulmonary blood flow during a
‘tet’ spell.
3. Which medication is considered the gold standard for treating a patient in acute
anaphylactic shock?
A. Diphenhydramine intramuscularly
B. Albuterol via nebulizer
C. Methylprednisolone intravenously
D. Epinephrine intramuscularly
Answer: D
Conceptual Explanation: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it
rapidly reverses bronchoconstriction and peripheral vasodilation.
4. A patient presents with a suspected tension pneumothorax. Which clinical sign is
considered a late and hallmark finding?
A. Tachypnea
B. Diminished breath sounds
, C. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side
D. Sudden chest pain
Answer: C
Conceptual Explanation: Tracheal deviation is a late sign of tension pneumothorax,
indicating significant pressure buildup shifting the mediastinum.
5. In the management of a patient with Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS), what is
the primary goal of using PEEP?
A. To decrease the fraction of inspired oxygen (FiO2)
B. To prevent alveolar collapse at the end of expiration
C. To increase the patient’s respiratory rate
D. To decrease the work of breathing during inspiration
Answer: B
Conceptual Explanation: Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) keeps alveoli open at
the end of expiration, improving gas exchange and oxygenation in ARDS.
6. A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) has a potassium level of 6.8 mEq/L. Which
medication should the nurse expect to administer to stabilize the cardiac membrane?
A. Sodium polystyrene sulfonate
B. Calcium Gluconate
C. Insulin and Dextrose
