EMT B MIDTERM REVIEW – CHAPTERS 1-23
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW (2026/2027 Edition)
NREMT EMT-Basic Cognitive Blueprint • Chapters 1-23
AHA Guidelines • CDC Field Triage • 100 Questions with Answers & Rationale
Format: 100 multiple-choice questions (single best answer, A–D).
Structure: Nine sections covering chapters 1-23 (EMS systems, A&P, airway,
assessment, medical, trauma, special populations, operations,
pharmacology).
Cognitive ~30% recall • ~50% application • ~20% analysis.
levels:
Grading: One point per question; correct answer and rationale provided after each
item.
Content basis: NREMT cognitive exam blueprint, AHA CPR/ECC guidelines, CDC field triage
criteria, and standard EMT textbook content (chapters 1-23).
Special Documentation/legal items (refusal, DNR, minor consent, HIPAA); START
inclusions: triage & MCI items; comprehensive multi-system scenario integration.
Important This is an independent practice exam for educational study; it is not an official
note: NREMT exam.
, Section 1: EMS Systems, Safety, Legal/Ethical, Communications, Documentation
(12 questions)
Q1: Which is the EMT's primary responsibility?
A. Ensuring the health, safety, and welfare of the patient [CORRECT]
B. Only driving the ambulance
C. Only documenting
D. Only restocking equipment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: the patient's health and safety are the primary responsibility. B, C, and D are part of
the role but not primary.
Q2: Which is a component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)?
A. Ignoring errors
B. Reviewing calls to identify and correct deficiencies [CORRECT]
C. Avoiding documentation
D. Keeping no records
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: CQI reviews calls to improve performance. B, C, and D are not CQI.
Q3: Which is a standard precaution for preventing exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
A. Reusing gloves
B. Recapping needles
C. Wearing gloves for potential contact with blood/body fluids [CORRECT]
D. Skipping hand hygiene
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: gloves and hand hygiene prevent exposure. B, C, and D increase exposure risk.
Q4: Which is an example of a physical sign of stress in an EMT?
A. Improved performance
B. No symptoms
C. Increased appetite only
D. Fatigue, headaches, and difficulty sleeping [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: stress can cause fatigue, headaches, and sleep problems. B, C, and D are not typical
stress signs.
Q5: A competent adult patient who understands the risks refuses transport. The EMT should:
A. Respect the refusal, document thoroughly, and have the patient sign [CORRECT]
B. Force transport
C. Leave without documentation
D. Sedate the patient
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: a valid refusal by a competent, informed adult is respected and documented. B, C,
and D are incorrect.
EMT B Midterm Review – Chapters 1-23 (2026/2027) Page 2
, Q6: Which is a key element of a legally valid refusal?
A. The patient is coerced
B. The patient is competent and informed of consequences [CORRECT]
C. No documentation
D. The family makes the decision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: competency and informed understanding are required. B, C, and D invalidate the
refusal.
Q7: Under HIPAA, the EMT must protect:
A. Public access to records
B. Free discussion of cases
C. The confidentiality of patient health information [CORRECT]
D. Posting patient details
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: HIPAA protects patient confidentiality. B, C, and D violate HIPAA.
Q8: Which is a mandatory reporting duty?
A. Keeping abuse secret
B. Reporting only if asked
C. Never reporting
D. Reporting suspected abuse or neglect [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: EMTs are mandated reporters of suspected abuse/neglect. B, C, and D fail that duty.
Q9: Which is an appropriate use of radio communication?
A. Provide a clear, concise patient report [CORRECT]
B. Give full names over the radio
C. Discuss cases in public
D. Use unprofessional language
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: radio reports are clear and concise. B, C, and D compromise
confidentiality/professionalism.
Q10: Which is a component of the patient care report (PCR)?
A. Only the address
B. Assessment findings, treatment, and response [CORRECT]
C. Only the time
D. Only the chief complaint
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: the PCR documents assessment, treatment, and response. B, C, and D are
incomplete.
Q11: Which best describes negligence?
A. Providing excellent care
B. Following protocol
C. Failure to meet the standard of care causing harm [CORRECT]
D. Documenting accurately
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: negligence is a breach of the standard of care causing harm. B, C, and D are not
negligence.
EMT B Midterm Review – Chapters 1-23 (2026/2027) Page 3
COMPREHENSIVE REVIEW (2026/2027 Edition)
NREMT EMT-Basic Cognitive Blueprint • Chapters 1-23
AHA Guidelines • CDC Field Triage • 100 Questions with Answers & Rationale
Format: 100 multiple-choice questions (single best answer, A–D).
Structure: Nine sections covering chapters 1-23 (EMS systems, A&P, airway,
assessment, medical, trauma, special populations, operations,
pharmacology).
Cognitive ~30% recall • ~50% application • ~20% analysis.
levels:
Grading: One point per question; correct answer and rationale provided after each
item.
Content basis: NREMT cognitive exam blueprint, AHA CPR/ECC guidelines, CDC field triage
criteria, and standard EMT textbook content (chapters 1-23).
Special Documentation/legal items (refusal, DNR, minor consent, HIPAA); START
inclusions: triage & MCI items; comprehensive multi-system scenario integration.
Important This is an independent practice exam for educational study; it is not an official
note: NREMT exam.
, Section 1: EMS Systems, Safety, Legal/Ethical, Communications, Documentation
(12 questions)
Q1: Which is the EMT's primary responsibility?
A. Ensuring the health, safety, and welfare of the patient [CORRECT]
B. Only driving the ambulance
C. Only documenting
D. Only restocking equipment
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: the patient's health and safety are the primary responsibility. B, C, and D are part of
the role but not primary.
Q2: Which is a component of continuous quality improvement (CQI)?
A. Ignoring errors
B. Reviewing calls to identify and correct deficiencies [CORRECT]
C. Avoiding documentation
D. Keeping no records
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: CQI reviews calls to improve performance. B, C, and D are not CQI.
Q3: Which is a standard precaution for preventing exposure to bloodborne pathogens?
A. Reusing gloves
B. Recapping needles
C. Wearing gloves for potential contact with blood/body fluids [CORRECT]
D. Skipping hand hygiene
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: gloves and hand hygiene prevent exposure. B, C, and D increase exposure risk.
Q4: Which is an example of a physical sign of stress in an EMT?
A. Improved performance
B. No symptoms
C. Increased appetite only
D. Fatigue, headaches, and difficulty sleeping [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: stress can cause fatigue, headaches, and sleep problems. B, C, and D are not typical
stress signs.
Q5: A competent adult patient who understands the risks refuses transport. The EMT should:
A. Respect the refusal, document thoroughly, and have the patient sign [CORRECT]
B. Force transport
C. Leave without documentation
D. Sedate the patient
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: a valid refusal by a competent, informed adult is respected and documented. B, C,
and D are incorrect.
EMT B Midterm Review – Chapters 1-23 (2026/2027) Page 2
, Q6: Which is a key element of a legally valid refusal?
A. The patient is coerced
B. The patient is competent and informed of consequences [CORRECT]
C. No documentation
D. The family makes the decision
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: competency and informed understanding are required. B, C, and D invalidate the
refusal.
Q7: Under HIPAA, the EMT must protect:
A. Public access to records
B. Free discussion of cases
C. The confidentiality of patient health information [CORRECT]
D. Posting patient details
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: HIPAA protects patient confidentiality. B, C, and D violate HIPAA.
Q8: Which is a mandatory reporting duty?
A. Keeping abuse secret
B. Reporting only if asked
C. Never reporting
D. Reporting suspected abuse or neglect [CORRECT]
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A is correct: EMTs are mandated reporters of suspected abuse/neglect. B, C, and D fail that duty.
Q9: Which is an appropriate use of radio communication?
A. Provide a clear, concise patient report [CORRECT]
B. Give full names over the radio
C. Discuss cases in public
D. Use unprofessional language
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A is correct: radio reports are clear and concise. B, C, and D compromise
confidentiality/professionalism.
Q10: Which is a component of the patient care report (PCR)?
A. Only the address
B. Assessment findings, treatment, and response [CORRECT]
C. Only the time
D. Only the chief complaint
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A is correct: the PCR documents assessment, treatment, and response. B, C, and D are
incomplete.
Q11: Which best describes negligence?
A. Providing excellent care
B. Following protocol
C. Failure to meet the standard of care causing harm [CORRECT]
D. Documenting accurately
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A is correct: negligence is a breach of the standard of care causing harm. B, C, and D are not
negligence.
EMT B Midterm Review – Chapters 1-23 (2026/2027) Page 3
