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ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 |
300 NGN-Style Q&A with Rationales | 100%
Pass Guarantee
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has dyspnea, crackles, and
peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer furosemide IV push
B. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
C. Restrict oral fluids to 1,500 mL/day
D. Obtain a stat serum potassium level
Answer: B
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and reduces
venous return, improving oxygenation immediately. Airway and breathing
always come first.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports sweating, tremors, and palpitations.
The nurse checks the blood glucose and finds it is 54 mg/dL. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Give 4 oz of orange juice
B. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM
C. Start an IV of D5W
D. Recheck glucose in 15 minutes
Answer: A
Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the rule is “15 g of
fast-acting carbohydrate” (e.g., 4 oz juice). Glucagon is reserved for unconscious
clients or those who cannot swallow.
3. A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which finding indicates a
possible catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A. Clear, pale yellow urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Urine specific gravity of 1.010
C. Cloudy urine with a foul odor
D. Client reports suprapubic fullness
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Answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy urine with a foul odor is a classic sign of infection. Clear
urine and normal specific gravity are expected. Suprapubic fullness suggests
retention, not infection.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with atrial fibrillation. Which
assessment finding would require the nurse to hold the medication and notify the
provider?
A. Apical pulse of 58 beats/min
B. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL
D. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ < 3.5) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. The
apical pulse is within safe range (> 60). A digoxin level of 1.2 is therapeutic
(0.8–2.0).
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse administers oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal
cannula. Which finding indicates the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate increases from 18 to 24
B. Client reports headache and fatigue
C. Oxygen saturation rises to 94%
D. Client becomes confused and lethargic
Answer: D
Rationale: In COPD, high oxygen can cause hypoventilation due to loss of
hypoxic drive. Confusion and lethargy are early signs of carbon dioxide
narcosis. A saturation of 94% is acceptable.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-total hip arthroplasty. Which
action is most important to prevent dislocation?
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A. Keep the client in a low-Fowler’s position
B. Place a pillow between the client’s legs
C. Encourage active range of motion of the operative leg
D. Maintain the client’s hips in adduction
Answer: B
Rationale: A pillow between the legs maintains abduction and prevents
adduction, which is the primary risk for dislocation after hip arthroplasty.
7. A client with major depressive disorder is started on phenelzine, a monoamine
oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which dietary instruction is most important?
A. Avoid foods containing tyramine, such as aged cheese and cured meats
B. Increase intake of high-fiber foods to prevent constipation
C. Limit caffeine to one cup per day
D. Take the medication with a full glass of milk
Answer: A
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine to cause a hypertensive crisis. Aged
cheese, cured meats, and fermented products are high in tyramine.
8. A nurse is assessing a newborn 5 minutes after birth. The newborn has a heart rate
of 140, respirations 40, good muscle tone, a vigorous cry, and acrocyanosis. What is
the Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: C
Rationale: Heart rate 140 (2), respirations 40 (2), good tone (2), cry (2),
acrocyanosis = blue extremities only (1). Total = 9.
,2|Page
ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026 |
300 NGN-Style Q&A with Rationales | 100%
Pass Guarantee
1. A nurse is caring for a client with heart failure who has dyspnea, crackles, and
peripheral edema. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Administer furosemide IV push
B. Place the client in high-Fowler’s position
C. Restrict oral fluids to 1,500 mL/day
D. Obtain a stat serum potassium level
Answer: B
Rationale: High-Fowler’s position maximizes lung expansion and reduces
venous return, improving oxygenation immediately. Airway and breathing
always come first.
2. A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus reports sweating, tremors, and palpitations.
The nurse checks the blood glucose and finds it is 54 mg/dL. Which action should the
nurse take?
A. Give 4 oz of orange juice
B. Administer 1 mg glucagon IM
C. Start an IV of D5W
D. Recheck glucose in 15 minutes
Answer: A
Rationale: For a conscious client with hypoglycemia, the rule is “15 g of
fast-acting carbohydrate” (e.g., 4 oz juice). Glucagon is reserved for unconscious
clients or those who cannot swallow.
3. A postoperative client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which finding indicates a
possible catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI)?
A. Clear, pale yellow urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Urine specific gravity of 1.010
C. Cloudy urine with a foul odor
D. Client reports suprapubic fullness
,3|Page
Answer: C
Rationale: Cloudy urine with a foul odor is a classic sign of infection. Clear
urine and normal specific gravity are expected. Suprapubic fullness suggests
retention, not infection.
4. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client with atrial fibrillation. Which
assessment finding would require the nurse to hold the medication and notify the
provider?
A. Apical pulse of 58 beats/min
B. Serum potassium of 3.2 mEq/L
C. Serum digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL
D. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia (K+ < 3.5) increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. The
apical pulse is within safe range (> 60). A digoxin level of 1.2 is therapeutic
(0.8–2.0).
5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) has an oxygen
saturation of 88% on room air. The nurse administers oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal
cannula. Which finding indicates the client is experiencing oxygen toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate increases from 18 to 24
B. Client reports headache and fatigue
C. Oxygen saturation rises to 94%
D. Client becomes confused and lethargic
Answer: D
Rationale: In COPD, high oxygen can cause hypoventilation due to loss of
hypoxic drive. Confusion and lethargy are early signs of carbon dioxide
narcosis. A saturation of 94% is acceptable.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hours post-total hip arthroplasty. Which
action is most important to prevent dislocation?
, 4|Page
A. Keep the client in a low-Fowler’s position
B. Place a pillow between the client’s legs
C. Encourage active range of motion of the operative leg
D. Maintain the client’s hips in adduction
Answer: B
Rationale: A pillow between the legs maintains abduction and prevents
adduction, which is the primary risk for dislocation after hip arthroplasty.
7. A client with major depressive disorder is started on phenelzine, a monoamine
oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which dietary instruction is most important?
A. Avoid foods containing tyramine, such as aged cheese and cured meats
B. Increase intake of high-fiber foods to prevent constipation
C. Limit caffeine to one cup per day
D. Take the medication with a full glass of milk
Answer: A
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine to cause a hypertensive crisis. Aged
cheese, cured meats, and fermented products are high in tyramine.
8. A nurse is assessing a newborn 5 minutes after birth. The newborn has a heart rate
of 140, respirations 40, good muscle tone, a vigorous cry, and acrocyanosis. What is
the Apgar score?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
Answer: C
Rationale: Heart rate 140 (2), respirations 40 (2), good tone (2), cry (2),
acrocyanosis = blue extremities only (1). Total = 9.
