ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR EXAM– QUESTIONS AND
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1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for a deep
vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to
evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. Prothrombin Time (PT)
D. Platelet count
ANSWER: B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
The aPTT is used to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy.
The target therapeutic range is typically 1.5 to 2 times the baseline value. The INR and PT are
used to monitor warfarin therapy, while the platelet count is monitored to assess for heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia rather than the anticoagulant effect itself.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
digoxin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I will take my pulse every day before taking the medication."
B. "I should increase my intake of high-sodium foods while taking this medication."
C. "If I miss a dose, I will take two pills the next day to catch up."
D. "I will stop taking the medication immediately if I feel fatigued."
ANSWER: A. "I will take my pulse every day before taking the medication."
Clients taking digoxin must monitor their apical pulse daily and withhold the medication if the
pulse rate is below the established parameter, usually 60/min in adults, to prevent toxicity.
High-sodium foods are not specifically required, double dosing is dangerous, and clients
should consult their provider rather than abruptly stopping the drug.
3. A nurse on a mental health unit is admitting a client who has major depressive disorder.
Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
A. Establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship
B. Implementing suicide precautions and assessing for a plan
,C. Encouraging participation in group therapy activities
D. Educating the client on prescribed antidepressant medications
ANSWER: B. Implementing suicide precautions and assessing for a plan
Using the urgent vs. non-urgent or safety-first priority-setting framework, ensuring client
safety by assessing for suicidal ideation and implementing appropriate precautions is always
the highest priority when admitting a client with major depressive disorder.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn infant who is 4 hours old. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Respiratory rate of 52/min with occasional brief pauses
C. Generalized petechiae over the face and trunk
D. A heart rate of 140/min while awake
ANSWER: C. Generalized petechiae over the face and trunk
Generalized petechiae can indicate a significant underlying condition such as congenital
infection, thrombocytopenia, or sepsis, and must be reported immediately. Acrocyanosis is
normal in the first 24 hours, a respiratory rate of 52/min is within the normal newborn range
of 30 to 60/min, and a heart rate of 140/min is normal.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of
the following equipment is most critical to keep readily available at the client's bedside?
A. Suction canister and tubing
B. Tracheostomy insertion tray
C. Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope
D. Cardiac telemetry monitor
ANSWER: B. Tracheostomy insertion tray
Following a thyroidectomy, clients are at risk for laryngeal edema, hemorrhage, and acute
airway obstruction due to proximity to the surgical site. A tracheostomy tray, oxygen, and
suction equipment must be at the bedside for emergency airway management.
6. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Blood pH of 7.48
B. Serum bicarbonate of 28 mEq/L
C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L
,ANSWER: C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
Clients with DKA typically present with severe hyperglycemia, often with blood glucose levels
exceeding 250 mg/dL, metabolic acidosis (pH less than 7.30), low serum bicarbonate (less than
18 mEq/L), and initial hyperkalemia due to extracellular shift, though total body potassium is
depleted.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Prime the blood administration tubing with 5% dextrose in water.
B. Verify the client and blood product with another licensed nurse.
C. Warm the blood product in a microwave if it feels cold.
D. Infuse one unit of blood over a total of 5 hours.
ANSWER: B. Verify the client and blood product with another licensed nurse
A two-nurse bedside verification process using the client's identification band and blood bag
label is mandatory to prevent transfusion errors. Blood must be primed and infused with 0.9%
sodium chloride only, never warmed in a microwave, and typically infused within 2 to 4 hours.
8. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected diagnosis
of acute appendicitis. Which of the following localized pain findings is characteristic of this
condition?
A. Right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right scapula
B. Left lower quadrant pain relieved by defecation
C. Right lower quadrant pain at McBurney's point
D. Periumbilical pain radiating to the left flank
ANSWER: C. Right lower quadrant pain at McBurney's point
Pain associated with acute appendicitis typically starts as periumbilical pain and then localizes
to the right lower quadrant at McBurney's point, often accompanied by rebound tenderness.
9. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) and experiences dyspnea. Which of the following breathing techniques should the
nurse teach the client?
A. Diaphragmatic breathing
B. Pursed-lip breathing
C. Shallow rapid breathing
D. Incentive spirometry breathing
ANSWER: B. Pursed-lip breathing
, Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD by prolonging exhalation, preventing airway
collapse, and reducing air trapping, which relieves dyspnea.
10. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute heart failure. Which of the following findings
is an early indicator of pulmonary congestion?
A. Dependent peripheral edema
B. Exertional dyspnea and a dry cough
C. Distended neck veins at 45 degrees
D. S3 heart gallop rhythm
ANSWER: B. Exertional dyspnea and a dry cough
Early manifestations of left-sided heart failure and resulting pulmonary congestion include
exertional dyspnea, fatigue, and a dry, hacking cough. Peripheral edema and jugular vein
distention are manifestations of right-sided heart failure.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following findings indicates the need for clinical
intervention?
A. Gastric output of 50 mL in 1 hour
B. The client reports mild throat irritation
C. The NG tube is draining bright red blood
D. The pH of the aspirate is 3.5
ANSWER: C. The NG tube is draining bright red blood
Fresh, bright red blood draining from an NG tube postoperatively or unexpectedly indicates
active hemorrhage and requires immediate provider notification and clinical intervention.
Mild throat irritation and acidic aspirate pH are expected findings.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following motor
symptoms should the nurse expect to find?
A. Hyperreflexia and spasticity
B. Resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity
C. Intention tremor and ataxia
D. Flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy
ANSWER: B. Resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity
Parkinson's disease is characterized by cardinal motor features including a resting tremor
("pill-rolling"), cogwheel rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability due to a deficiency of
dopamine in the basal ganglia.
ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE |
EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST | DOWNLOAD
INSTANT PDF
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous heparin therapy for a deep
vein thrombosis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to
evaluate the effectiveness of this therapy?
A. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. Prothrombin Time (PT)
D. Platelet count
ANSWER: B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
The aPTT is used to monitor the therapeutic effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy.
The target therapeutic range is typically 1.5 to 2 times the baseline value. The INR and PT are
used to monitor warfarin therapy, while the platelet count is monitored to assess for heparin-
induced thrombocytopenia rather than the anticoagulant effect itself.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
digoxin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the
teaching?
A. "I will take my pulse every day before taking the medication."
B. "I should increase my intake of high-sodium foods while taking this medication."
C. "If I miss a dose, I will take two pills the next day to catch up."
D. "I will stop taking the medication immediately if I feel fatigued."
ANSWER: A. "I will take my pulse every day before taking the medication."
Clients taking digoxin must monitor their apical pulse daily and withhold the medication if the
pulse rate is below the established parameter, usually 60/min in adults, to prevent toxicity.
High-sodium foods are not specifically required, double dosing is dangerous, and clients
should consult their provider rather than abruptly stopping the drug.
3. A nurse on a mental health unit is admitting a client who has major depressive disorder.
Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?
A. Establishing a therapeutic nurse-client relationship
B. Implementing suicide precautions and assessing for a plan
,C. Encouraging participation in group therapy activities
D. Educating the client on prescribed antidepressant medications
ANSWER: B. Implementing suicide precautions and assessing for a plan
Using the urgent vs. non-urgent or safety-first priority-setting framework, ensuring client
safety by assessing for suicidal ideation and implementing appropriate precautions is always
the highest priority when admitting a client with major depressive disorder.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn infant who is 4 hours old. Which of the following findings
should the nurse report to the provider immediately?
A. Acrocyanosis of the hands and feet
B. Respiratory rate of 52/min with occasional brief pauses
C. Generalized petechiae over the face and trunk
D. A heart rate of 140/min while awake
ANSWER: C. Generalized petechiae over the face and trunk
Generalized petechiae can indicate a significant underlying condition such as congenital
infection, thrombocytopenia, or sepsis, and must be reported immediately. Acrocyanosis is
normal in the first 24 hours, a respiratory rate of 52/min is within the normal newborn range
of 30 to 60/min, and a heart rate of 140/min is normal.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of
the following equipment is most critical to keep readily available at the client's bedside?
A. Suction canister and tubing
B. Tracheostomy insertion tray
C. Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope
D. Cardiac telemetry monitor
ANSWER: B. Tracheostomy insertion tray
Following a thyroidectomy, clients are at risk for laryngeal edema, hemorrhage, and acute
airway obstruction due to proximity to the surgical site. A tracheostomy tray, oxygen, and
suction equipment must be at the bedside for emergency airway management.
6. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis
(DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Blood pH of 7.48
B. Serum bicarbonate of 28 mEq/L
C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
D. Serum potassium of 5.2 mEq/L
,ANSWER: C. Blood glucose of 450 mg/dL
Clients with DKA typically present with severe hyperglycemia, often with blood glucose levels
exceeding 250 mg/dL, metabolic acidosis (pH less than 7.30), low serum bicarbonate (less than
18 mEq/L), and initial hyperkalemia due to extracellular shift, though total body potassium is
depleted.
7. A nurse is preparing to administer packed red blood cells (PRBCs) to a client. Which of
the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Prime the blood administration tubing with 5% dextrose in water.
B. Verify the client and blood product with another licensed nurse.
C. Warm the blood product in a microwave if it feels cold.
D. Infuse one unit of blood over a total of 5 hours.
ANSWER: B. Verify the client and blood product with another licensed nurse
A two-nurse bedside verification process using the client's identification band and blood bag
label is mandatory to prevent transfusion errors. Blood must be primed and infused with 0.9%
sodium chloride only, never warmed in a microwave, and typically infused within 2 to 4 hours.
8. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who has a suspected diagnosis
of acute appendicitis. Which of the following localized pain findings is characteristic of this
condition?
A. Right upper quadrant pain radiating to the right scapula
B. Left lower quadrant pain relieved by defecation
C. Right lower quadrant pain at McBurney's point
D. Periumbilical pain radiating to the left flank
ANSWER: C. Right lower quadrant pain at McBurney's point
Pain associated with acute appendicitis typically starts as periumbilical pain and then localizes
to the right lower quadrant at McBurney's point, often accompanied by rebound tenderness.
9. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) and experiences dyspnea. Which of the following breathing techniques should the
nurse teach the client?
A. Diaphragmatic breathing
B. Pursed-lip breathing
C. Shallow rapid breathing
D. Incentive spirometry breathing
ANSWER: B. Pursed-lip breathing
, Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD by prolonging exhalation, preventing airway
collapse, and reducing air trapping, which relieves dyspnea.
10. A nurse is assessing a client who has acute heart failure. Which of the following findings
is an early indicator of pulmonary congestion?
A. Dependent peripheral edema
B. Exertional dyspnea and a dry cough
C. Distended neck veins at 45 degrees
D. S3 heart gallop rhythm
ANSWER: B. Exertional dyspnea and a dry cough
Early manifestations of left-sided heart failure and resulting pulmonary congestion include
exertional dyspnea, fatigue, and a dry, hacking cough. Peripheral edema and jugular vein
distention are manifestations of right-sided heart failure.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low
intermittent suction. Which of the following findings indicates the need for clinical
intervention?
A. Gastric output of 50 mL in 1 hour
B. The client reports mild throat irritation
C. The NG tube is draining bright red blood
D. The pH of the aspirate is 3.5
ANSWER: C. The NG tube is draining bright red blood
Fresh, bright red blood draining from an NG tube postoperatively or unexpectedly indicates
active hemorrhage and requires immediate provider notification and clinical intervention.
Mild throat irritation and acidic aspirate pH are expected findings.
12. A nurse is assessing a client who has Parkinson's disease. Which of the following motor
symptoms should the nurse expect to find?
A. Hyperreflexia and spasticity
B. Resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity
C. Intention tremor and ataxia
D. Flaccid paralysis and muscle atrophy
ANSWER: B. Resting tremor and cogwheel rigidity
Parkinson's disease is characterized by cardinal motor features including a resting tremor
("pill-rolling"), cogwheel rigidity, bradykinesia, and postural instability due to a deficiency of
dopamine in the basal ganglia.
