Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Test
Bank 10th Edition by Sheila L. Videbeck
| ISBN 9781975239152
Aligned with Videbeck, 10th Edition (ISBN 9781975239152)
Chapter 1: Foundations of Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing
1. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition, Text Revision (DSM-5-TR). Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
• A. “It provides a framework for billing insurance companies for my care.”
• B. “It classifies mental disorders based on specific criteria and helps
clinicians communicate.”
• C. “It outlines the exact biological cause for each mental illness.”
• D. “It dictates the exact medication every client must take for their
diagnosis.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5-TR is a taxonomy used by clinicians to diagnose mental
disorders using standardized criteria, which facilitates communication and
research. It does not define etiology (C), dictate treatment (D), or serve primarily
as a billing tool, though diagnostic codes are used for reimbursement (A).
2. During a community mental health presentation, the nurse explains the
concept of “recovery” in mental health care. Which statement best reflects the
recovery model?
• A. Recovery means the complete elimination of all psychiatric symptoms.
, • B. Recovery is a personal, self-directed process of living a satisfying, hopeful
life despite limitations caused by illness.
• C. Recovery occurs when the client adheres strictly to the prescribed
medication regimen.
• D. Recovery is a linear process defined by the absence of hospitalizations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recovery model emphasizes hope, empowerment, and self-
direction, recognizing that individuals can live fulfilling lives even with ongoing
symptoms. It is not synonymous with cure (A), is non-linear, and is not solely
dependent on medication adherence (C) or lack of hospitalization (D).
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication
3. A client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, “There is no point in
going on. I am a burden to everyone.” Which response by the nurse is most
therapeutic?
• A. “You have so much to live for; your family loves you very much.”
• B. “You sound very discouraged right now. Can you tell me more about how
you’re feeling?”
• C. “Why do you think you are a burden to your family?”
• D. “Things will seem better in the morning; you are just having a bad day.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This response uses the therapeutic technique of reflecting and inviting
elaboration, acknowledging the client’s feelings without offering false reassurance
(A, D) or asking a “why” question that can feel interrogating (C). It opens a space
for exploration.
,4. A client with schizophrenia is pacing and muttering angrily. The nurse asks,
“Would you like to walk with me to the quiet room and talk?” The client yells,
“You just want to lock me up! Leave me alone!” Which defensive communication
technique is the client demonstrating?
• A. Projection
• B. Splitting
• C. Displacement
• D. Rationalization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Displacement is the transfer of feelings from one target to another less
threatening one; the client’s anger is being redirected at the nurse. Projection (A)
involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings to others. The nurse’s action
is a simple invitation, not a sign of splitting (B) or rationalization (D).
Chapter 5: Legal and Ethical Issues
5. A nurse witnesses a colleague physically grabbing and shaking a client who
refused to go to a group session. The nurse should report this to which
immediate authority?
• A. The hospital ethics committee
• B. The state medical board
• C. The nursing supervisor or charge nurse
• D. Adult Protective Services
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The immediate chain of command in a clinical setting is the supervisor
or charge nurse, who can intervene to ensure client safety and initiate an internal
investigation. APS (D) may be notified later, but the immediate concern is stopping
, the abuse. The ethics committee (A) reviews broad issues, not urgent safety
matters.
6. A client with a severe intellectual disability is asked to participate in a
research study. The client nods when asked if they agree, but their legal
guardian is not present. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
• A. Proceed with enrollment because the client gave assent.
• B. Delay enrollment until informed consent is obtained from the legal
guardian.
• C. Ask the client’s psychiatrist to co-sign the consent form.
• D. Document the verbal assent as legally binding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vulnerable populations, including those with cognitive impairments
that affect decision-making, require surrogate consent from a legally authorized
representative. Assent from the client is ethically desirable but does not replace
informed consent from the guardian.
Chapter 7: Psychopharmacology
7. A client prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for generalized anxiety disorder
reports feeling “on edge,” restless, and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. The nurse
suspects which of the following?
• A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• B. Serotonin syndrome
• C. Akathisia
• D. Anticholinergic crisis
Bank 10th Edition by Sheila L. Videbeck
| ISBN 9781975239152
Aligned with Videbeck, 10th Edition (ISBN 9781975239152)
Chapter 1: Foundations of Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing
1. A nurse is teaching a client about the purpose of the Diagnostic and Statistical
Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition, Text Revision (DSM-5-TR). Which
statement by the client indicates understanding?
• A. “It provides a framework for billing insurance companies for my care.”
• B. “It classifies mental disorders based on specific criteria and helps
clinicians communicate.”
• C. “It outlines the exact biological cause for each mental illness.”
• D. “It dictates the exact medication every client must take for their
diagnosis.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The DSM-5-TR is a taxonomy used by clinicians to diagnose mental
disorders using standardized criteria, which facilitates communication and
research. It does not define etiology (C), dictate treatment (D), or serve primarily
as a billing tool, though diagnostic codes are used for reimbursement (A).
2. During a community mental health presentation, the nurse explains the
concept of “recovery” in mental health care. Which statement best reflects the
recovery model?
• A. Recovery means the complete elimination of all psychiatric symptoms.
, • B. Recovery is a personal, self-directed process of living a satisfying, hopeful
life despite limitations caused by illness.
• C. Recovery occurs when the client adheres strictly to the prescribed
medication regimen.
• D. Recovery is a linear process defined by the absence of hospitalizations.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The recovery model emphasizes hope, empowerment, and self-
direction, recognizing that individuals can live fulfilling lives even with ongoing
symptoms. It is not synonymous with cure (A), is non-linear, and is not solely
dependent on medication adherence (C) or lack of hospitalization (D).
Chapter 4: Therapeutic Communication
3. A client with major depressive disorder tells the nurse, “There is no point in
going on. I am a burden to everyone.” Which response by the nurse is most
therapeutic?
• A. “You have so much to live for; your family loves you very much.”
• B. “You sound very discouraged right now. Can you tell me more about how
you’re feeling?”
• C. “Why do you think you are a burden to your family?”
• D. “Things will seem better in the morning; you are just having a bad day.”
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This response uses the therapeutic technique of reflecting and inviting
elaboration, acknowledging the client’s feelings without offering false reassurance
(A, D) or asking a “why” question that can feel interrogating (C). It opens a space
for exploration.
,4. A client with schizophrenia is pacing and muttering angrily. The nurse asks,
“Would you like to walk with me to the quiet room and talk?” The client yells,
“You just want to lock me up! Leave me alone!” Which defensive communication
technique is the client demonstrating?
• A. Projection
• B. Splitting
• C. Displacement
• D. Rationalization
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Displacement is the transfer of feelings from one target to another less
threatening one; the client’s anger is being redirected at the nurse. Projection (A)
involves attributing one’s own unacceptable feelings to others. The nurse’s action
is a simple invitation, not a sign of splitting (B) or rationalization (D).
Chapter 5: Legal and Ethical Issues
5. A nurse witnesses a colleague physically grabbing and shaking a client who
refused to go to a group session. The nurse should report this to which
immediate authority?
• A. The hospital ethics committee
• B. The state medical board
• C. The nursing supervisor or charge nurse
• D. Adult Protective Services
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The immediate chain of command in a clinical setting is the supervisor
or charge nurse, who can intervene to ensure client safety and initiate an internal
investigation. APS (D) may be notified later, but the immediate concern is stopping
, the abuse. The ethics committee (A) reviews broad issues, not urgent safety
matters.
6. A client with a severe intellectual disability is asked to participate in a
research study. The client nods when asked if they agree, but their legal
guardian is not present. What is the most appropriate nursing action?
• A. Proceed with enrollment because the client gave assent.
• B. Delay enrollment until informed consent is obtained from the legal
guardian.
• C. Ask the client’s psychiatrist to co-sign the consent form.
• D. Document the verbal assent as legally binding.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Vulnerable populations, including those with cognitive impairments
that affect decision-making, require surrogate consent from a legally authorized
representative. Assent from the client is ethically desirable but does not replace
informed consent from the guardian.
Chapter 7: Psychopharmacology
7. A client prescribed escitalopram (Lexapro) for generalized anxiety disorder
reports feeling “on edge,” restless, and has a heart rate of 110 bpm. The nurse
suspects which of the following?
• A. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• B. Serotonin syndrome
• C. Akathisia
• D. Anticholinergic crisis
