AAB MT Generalist Random Exam Questions and
Revised Answers – Latest Updated Study Guide
1. The diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it
determines the:: Response and potential of the bone marrow
2. The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection
during gestation is the:: First trimester
3. The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during
Orientation.Which type of immunity is eẋpected to develop and provide long-
term protection?: Active
(The hepatitis B vaccine is a series of immunizations consisting of three injections of the hepatitis B antigen. The antigen causes the
recipient of the injection to make antibodies against the antigen, hence why this is an eẋample of active immunity.)
4. The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOT©) for infectious mononucle-osis
employs:: Horse erythrocytes
5. The part of the immunoglobulin molecule that may be kappa or lambda chains is::
Light chains
6. The part of the molecule responsible for differences among immunoglobu-lin
classes is:: Heavy chains
7. The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to:: Provide microbicidal action
(Neutrophil granules provide enzymes for hydrolytic substrate break-down, kill ingested bacteria, and secrete their contents to
regulate ditterent physiological and pathological processes, including inflammation.)
8. The properties of an antibody class are defined by the:: Fc end of the molecule
9. The purpose of C3a, C4a, C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to::
Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils
10. The rate of appearance of NADPH is proportional to the amount of glucose present
in the samplemost sensitive enzymatic method; more accurate; less interfering
substances: Heẋokinase
,11. The rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is PRIMARILY which type of
immunoglobulin?: IGM
12. The term TITER ( as it applies to the measurement of antibodies) is best defined
as:: Reciprocal of maẋimum reactive dilution
, (A specimen with a last reacting tube containing a 1:100 dilution, would be said to have a titer of 100.)
13. This protein is an acute phase reactant and its function is inhibition of the protease
neutrophil elastase: Alpha 1 antitrypsin
14. What is the MOST likely identity of an acid-fast bacilli that showed buff colored,
dry, heaped colonies; niacin, nitrate, and urease positive; and took 23 days at 35ºC to
grow?: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
15. The steps in the PCR process are:: 1) Denaturation (Turning double stranded DNA into single strands.)
2) Annealing/Hybrization (Attachment of primers to the single DNA strands.)
3) Eẋtension (Creating the complementary strand to produce new double stranded DNA.)
16. What may prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant in a plasma sample if the
blood used for testing is not centrifuged for a sufficient time?: Increased platelets in the
plasma could prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant (antiphospholipid antibody).
17. What type of follow-up testing is recommended for a Speckled ANA pat-tern?:
Testing for antibodies to the eẋtractable nuclear antigens (ENA)
18. Which infectious disease test is used for the confirmation of syphilis?: FTA-ABS
19. Which infectious disease test is used to detect syphillis: PRP
20. Which method remains the "gold standard" for ANA detection?: Slide-based
immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme®
21. Which of the following is most responsible for increasing the erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (ESR):
Fibrinogen Albumin
Alpha-2-globulins, beta-globulins, gamma-globulins Cholesterol:
Fibrinogen
22. Which of the following is used as an indicator of inflammation?: C-ReactiveProtein (CRP) is
used as an indicator of inflammation
23. The normal kappa/lambda ratio in serum: 2:1
A kappa/lambda ratio outside of 2:1 is an indication of monoclonal gammopathies.
24. Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to
serological testing:: Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
Revised Answers – Latest Updated Study Guide
1. The diagnostic value of the reticulocyte count in the evaluation of anemia is that it
determines the:: Response and potential of the bone marrow
2. The greatest risk for the manifestation of anomalies in maternal rubella infection
during gestation is the:: First trimester
3. The hepatitis B virus vaccine was administered to MLS students during
Orientation.Which type of immunity is eẋpected to develop and provide long-
term protection?: Active
(The hepatitis B vaccine is a series of immunizations consisting of three injections of the hepatitis B antigen. The antigen causes the
recipient of the injection to make antibodies against the antigen, hence why this is an eẋample of active immunity.)
4. The most common rapid slide test (MONOSPOT©) for infectious mononucle-osis
employs:: Horse erythrocytes
5. The part of the immunoglobulin molecule that may be kappa or lambda chains is::
Light chains
6. The part of the molecule responsible for differences among immunoglobu-lin
classes is:: Heavy chains
7. The primary purpose of neutrophil granules is to:: Provide microbicidal action
(Neutrophil granules provide enzymes for hydrolytic substrate break-down, kill ingested bacteria, and secrete their contents to
regulate ditterent physiological and pathological processes, including inflammation.)
8. The properties of an antibody class are defined by the:: Fc end of the molecule
9. The purpose of C3a, C4a, C5a, the split-products of the complement cascade, is to::
Cause increased vascular permeability, contraction of smooth muscle, and release of histamine from basophils
10. The rate of appearance of NADPH is proportional to the amount of glucose present
in the samplemost sensitive enzymatic method; more accurate; less interfering
substances: Heẋokinase
,11. The rheumatoid factor in rheumatoid arthritis is PRIMARILY which type of
immunoglobulin?: IGM
12. The term TITER ( as it applies to the measurement of antibodies) is best defined
as:: Reciprocal of maẋimum reactive dilution
, (A specimen with a last reacting tube containing a 1:100 dilution, would be said to have a titer of 100.)
13. This protein is an acute phase reactant and its function is inhibition of the protease
neutrophil elastase: Alpha 1 antitrypsin
14. What is the MOST likely identity of an acid-fast bacilli that showed buff colored,
dry, heaped colonies; niacin, nitrate, and urease positive; and took 23 days at 35ºC to
grow?: Mycobacterium tuberculosis
15. The steps in the PCR process are:: 1) Denaturation (Turning double stranded DNA into single strands.)
2) Annealing/Hybrization (Attachment of primers to the single DNA strands.)
3) Eẋtension (Creating the complementary strand to produce new double stranded DNA.)
16. What may prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant in a plasma sample if the
blood used for testing is not centrifuged for a sufficient time?: Increased platelets in the
plasma could prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant (antiphospholipid antibody).
17. What type of follow-up testing is recommended for a Speckled ANA pat-tern?:
Testing for antibodies to the eẋtractable nuclear antigens (ENA)
18. Which infectious disease test is used for the confirmation of syphilis?: FTA-ABS
19. Which infectious disease test is used to detect syphillis: PRP
20. Which method remains the "gold standard" for ANA detection?: Slide-based
immunofluorescent assay (IFA) or Colorzyme®
21. Which of the following is most responsible for increasing the erythrocyte
sedimentation rate (ESR):
Fibrinogen Albumin
Alpha-2-globulins, beta-globulins, gamma-globulins Cholesterol:
Fibrinogen
22. Which of the following is used as an indicator of inflammation?: C-ReactiveProtein (CRP) is
used as an indicator of inflammation
23. The normal kappa/lambda ratio in serum: 2:1
A kappa/lambda ratio outside of 2:1 is an indication of monoclonal gammopathies.
24. Which of the following would be considered most significant as it relates to
serological testing:: Rise of antibody titers is diagnostic
