NR 601 Final Exam (2026/2027)
200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES + 100 MOST
TESTED Q&A
NR 601 Final Exam
1.
Mr. A experienced a brief onset of right-sided weakness, slurred speech, and confusion
yesterday. The symptoms have since completely resolved, and a computed tomography (CT) scan
of the head is normal. What is the next step in the plan of care for Mr. A?
,a. Assure the patient that he will not experience the symptoms again
b. Identify modifiable cardiovascular risk factors
c. Order aspirin 81 mg stat
d. Order a stat electroencephalogram (EEG) and administer oxygen by mask
CORRECT ANS: b
EXPERT RATIONALE
Mr. A's clinical presentation—transient, focal neurological deficits that resolve completely within
24 hours, with a normal CT scan—is classic for a transient ischemic attack (TIA). A TIA is a critical
warning sign of an impending stroke. The priority is to identify and manage modifiable
cardiovascular risk factors (e.g., hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, smoking, atrial
fibrillation) to prevent a future, potentially debilitating stroke. While aspirin (c) may be part of
secondary prevention, it is not the "next step" before a thorough risk assessment. Assuring the
patient he will not have symptoms again (a) is false reassurance. An EEG and oxygen (d) are not
indicated for a resolved TIA.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Application)
REF: Neurological Disorders / Transient Ischemic Attack
OBJ: Identify the appropriate management of a TIA
TOP: Planning / Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity – Reduction of Risk Potential
2.
A 56-year-old male patient is screened for diabetes mellitus. His fasting plasma glucose level is
96 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner's management plan should include which of the following?
a. Repeat the fasting plasma glucose in three years
b. Prescribe metformin 500 mg orally twice daily
c. Repeat the fasting plasma glucose in one year
d. Refer the patient to ophthalmology for an eye examination
CORRECT ANS: a
EXPERT RATIONALE
A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 96 mg/dL is within the normal range (<100 mg/dL).
According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) guidelines, patients with normal glucose
levels should be screened for diabetes every three years. Therefore, repeating the FPG in three
years (a) is the appropriate management. Metformin (b) is indicated for prediabetes or type 2
,diabetes, not a normal FPG. Repeating in one year (c) is too frequent for a normal result.
Ophthalmology referral (d) is indicated for patients with established diabetes, not for screening.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
REF: Endocrine Disorders / Diabetes Screening
OBJ: Interpret fasting plasma glucose results
TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance – Health Screening
3.
RW, a 57-year-old Native American female, presents to the office. RW states she feels irritable
and has difficulty concentrating, as well as difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. She states
she is worried about her finances, as her husband has just lost his job. The nurse practitioner
(NP) diagnoses anxiety. The NP prescribes a first-line treatment, which is:
a. Diazepam
b. Clonazepam
c. Aripiprazole
d. Paroxetine
CORRECT ANS: d
EXPERT RATIONALE
Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is considered a first-line
pharmacological treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). SSRIs have a favorable side
effect profile and are effective for both anxiety and depression. Diazepam (a) and clonazepam (b)
are benzodiazepines, which are effective for acute anxiety but are not first-line due to their risk
of dependence, tolerance, and sedation, especially in older adults. Aripiprazole (c) is an atypical
antipsychotic, not a first-line treatment for anxiety.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
REF: Mental Health / Anxiety Disorders
OBJ: Identify first-line pharmacological treatment for GAD
TOP: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity – Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
, 4.
The most common sustained rhythmic disorder, which consists of fibrillatory P waves, is:
a. AV block
b. Atrial tachycardia
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Atrial flutter
CORRECT ANS: c
EXPERT RATIONALE
Atrial fibrillation (AFib) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia. It is characterized by
chaotic, disorganized electrical activity in the atria, resulting in the absence of discernible P
waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular response. The term "fibrillatory P waves" refers to
the rapid, irregular baseline oscillations (fibrillatory or f waves) seen on the electrocardiogram.
AV block (a) is characterized by conduction delays. Atrial tachycardia (b) is a regular rhythm with
an atrial rate of 100-250 bpm. Atrial flutter (d) is characterized by a saw-tooth pattern of flutter
waves (F waves), not fibrillatory waves.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension)
REF: Cardiovascular Disorders / Dysrhythmias
OBJ: Identify the characteristics of atrial fibrillation
TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity – Cardiovascular System
5.
According to the sexuality presentation, atrophic vaginitis:
a. The symptoms are the same for each woman
b. Creates a more acidic vaginal environment
c. Is a contributing factor for frequent urinary tract infections
d. Is not treated with vaginal lubricants
CORRECT ANS: c
EXPERT RATIONALE
Atrophic vaginitis is a condition caused by decreased estrogen levels, typically after menopause.
The thinning, drying, and inflammation of the vaginal tissues lead to a less acidic (more alkaline)
environment (b), which disrupts the normal flora and makes the vagina more susceptible to
200 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS WITH
RATIONALES + 100 MOST
TESTED Q&A
NR 601 Final Exam
1.
Mr. A experienced a brief onset of right-sided weakness, slurred speech, and confusion
yesterday. The symptoms have since completely resolved, and a computed tomography (CT) scan
of the head is normal. What is the next step in the plan of care for Mr. A?
,a. Assure the patient that he will not experience the symptoms again
b. Identify modifiable cardiovascular risk factors
c. Order aspirin 81 mg stat
d. Order a stat electroencephalogram (EEG) and administer oxygen by mask
CORRECT ANS: b
EXPERT RATIONALE
Mr. A's clinical presentation—transient, focal neurological deficits that resolve completely within
24 hours, with a normal CT scan—is classic for a transient ischemic attack (TIA). A TIA is a critical
warning sign of an impending stroke. The priority is to identify and manage modifiable
cardiovascular risk factors (e.g., hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes, smoking, atrial
fibrillation) to prevent a future, potentially debilitating stroke. While aspirin (c) may be part of
secondary prevention, it is not the "next step" before a thorough risk assessment. Assuring the
patient he will not have symptoms again (a) is false reassurance. An EEG and oxygen (d) are not
indicated for a resolved TIA.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze (Application)
REF: Neurological Disorders / Transient Ischemic Attack
OBJ: Identify the appropriate management of a TIA
TOP: Planning / Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity – Reduction of Risk Potential
2.
A 56-year-old male patient is screened for diabetes mellitus. His fasting plasma glucose level is
96 mg/dL. The nurse practitioner's management plan should include which of the following?
a. Repeat the fasting plasma glucose in three years
b. Prescribe metformin 500 mg orally twice daily
c. Repeat the fasting plasma glucose in one year
d. Refer the patient to ophthalmology for an eye examination
CORRECT ANS: a
EXPERT RATIONALE
A fasting plasma glucose (FPG) level of 96 mg/dL is within the normal range (<100 mg/dL).
According to the American Diabetes Association (ADA) guidelines, patients with normal glucose
levels should be screened for diabetes every three years. Therefore, repeating the FPG in three
years (a) is the appropriate management. Metformin (b) is indicated for prediabetes or type 2
,diabetes, not a normal FPG. Repeating in one year (c) is too frequent for a normal result.
Ophthalmology referral (d) is indicated for patients with established diabetes, not for screening.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
REF: Endocrine Disorders / Diabetes Screening
OBJ: Interpret fasting plasma glucose results
TOP: Planning
MSC: NCLEX: Health Promotion and Maintenance – Health Screening
3.
RW, a 57-year-old Native American female, presents to the office. RW states she feels irritable
and has difficulty concentrating, as well as difficulty falling asleep and staying asleep. She states
she is worried about her finances, as her husband has just lost his job. The nurse practitioner
(NP) diagnoses anxiety. The NP prescribes a first-line treatment, which is:
a. Diazepam
b. Clonazepam
c. Aripiprazole
d. Paroxetine
CORRECT ANS: d
EXPERT RATIONALE
Paroxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI), which is considered a first-line
pharmacological treatment for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD). SSRIs have a favorable side
effect profile and are effective for both anxiety and depression. Diazepam (a) and clonazepam (b)
are benzodiazepines, which are effective for acute anxiety but are not first-line due to their risk
of dependence, tolerance, and sedation, especially in older adults. Aripiprazole (c) is an atypical
antipsychotic, not a first-line treatment for anxiety.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply (Application)
REF: Mental Health / Anxiety Disorders
OBJ: Identify first-line pharmacological treatment for GAD
TOP: Implementation
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity – Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
, 4.
The most common sustained rhythmic disorder, which consists of fibrillatory P waves, is:
a. AV block
b. Atrial tachycardia
c. Atrial fibrillation
d. Atrial flutter
CORRECT ANS: c
EXPERT RATIONALE
Atrial fibrillation (AFib) is the most common sustained cardiac arrhythmia. It is characterized by
chaotic, disorganized electrical activity in the atria, resulting in the absence of discernible P
waves and an irregularly irregular ventricular response. The term "fibrillatory P waves" refers to
the rapid, irregular baseline oscillations (fibrillatory or f waves) seen on the electrocardiogram.
AV block (a) is characterized by conduction delays. Atrial tachycardia (b) is a regular rhythm with
an atrial rate of 100-250 bpm. Atrial flutter (d) is characterized by a saw-tooth pattern of flutter
waves (F waves), not fibrillatory waves.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Understand (Comprehension)
REF: Cardiovascular Disorders / Dysrhythmias
OBJ: Identify the characteristics of atrial fibrillation
TOP: Assessment
MSC: NCLEX: Physiological Integrity – Cardiovascular System
5.
According to the sexuality presentation, atrophic vaginitis:
a. The symptoms are the same for each woman
b. Creates a more acidic vaginal environment
c. Is a contributing factor for frequent urinary tract infections
d. Is not treated with vaginal lubricants
CORRECT ANS: c
EXPERT RATIONALE
Atrophic vaginitis is a condition caused by decreased estrogen levels, typically after menopause.
The thinning, drying, and inflammation of the vaginal tissues lead to a less acidic (more alkaline)
environment (b), which disrupts the normal flora and makes the vagina more susceptible to
