WGU D236
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢80 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Digital preview sample - complete document available after purchase
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam .................................................................. 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides ..................... 42
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 107
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry
skin and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis.
The physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin
care. Which condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition
characterized by pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or
vesicles. It is strongly associated with a personal or family history of atopy
(allergic rhinitis, asthma). Treatment includes emollients, topical
corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis (A) presents with well-
demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C) requires an
identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
,2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation
appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A
skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this
describe?
A. Albinism
B. Vitiligo
C. Melasma
D. Tinea versicolor
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of
melanocytes, resulting in depigmented macules or patches commonly on sun-
exposed areas (face, hands, arms). Histology confirms the absence of
melanocytes. Albinism (A) is a congenital reduction in melanin synthesis.
Melasma (C) presents with hyperpigmentation. Tinea versicolor (D) is a fungal
infection causing hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches.
3. Medical records show that a patient presented with a skin condition
characterized by blackheads. The patient has scarring from this ongoing
problem and was prescribed antibacterial solution. Which condition is
described?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Acne vulgaris is a disorder of the pilosebaceous unit characterized by
comedones (blackheads and whiteheads), papules, pustules, and potential
scarring. Treatment includes topical antibacterial agents (benzoyl peroxide,
clindamycin), retinoids, and systemic therapies for severe cases. Rosacea (A)
presents with erythema and telangiectasias without comedones. Folliculitis (D)
involves hair follicle inflammation.
,antibodies (immunoglobulins) specific to the pathogen. Red blood cells (A)
transport oxygen. Phagocytes (C) such as neutrophils and macrophages engulf
pathogens. Mast cells and basophils (D) produce histamine.
16. What appropriately describes innate immunity?
A. The specific pathogen-fighting system that develops after initial exposure
and improves with each subsequent encounter
B. The general pathogen-fighting system people are born with that does not
change over time
C. The system that produces memory cells for rapid future response
D. The system that relies solely on antibody production
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense, present at birth and non-
specific. It includes physical barriers (skin, mucous membranes), chemical
barriers (stomach acid, lysozyme), and cellular defenses (phagocytes, NK cells).
Unlike adaptive immunity, it does not develop memory or improve with
repeated exposure. Options A, C, and D describe characteristics of adaptive
immunity.
17. What are the characteristics of helper T cells?
A. They directly destroy infected host cells
B. They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines
C. They suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
D. They produce antibodies upon antigen stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Helper T cells (CD4+ T cells) are central regulators of the adaptive immune
response. They recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules and
release cytokines that activate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, and macrophages.
,infarction. Risk factors include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, smoking, and
diabetes mellitus.
37. Which type of anemia is characterized by insufficient or totally absent
RBC production and results in a patient having the inability to fight
infection and having a tendency to bleed?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Aplastic anemia is a bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by
pancytopenia (deficiency of all blood cell lines). The absence of red blood cells
causes anemia, the absence of white blood cells causes infection susceptibility,
and the absence of platelets causes bleeding tendency. It can be idiopathic or
caused by toxins, radiation, medications, or viral infections. Bone marrow
biopsy shows hypocellularity.
38. What is the definition of hyperlipidemia?
A. Elevated levels of glucose in the bloodstream
B. Elevated levels of lipids in the bloodstream
C. Elevated levels of urea nitrogen in the bloodstream
D. Elevated levels of ketones in the bloodstream
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Hyperlipidemia (dyslipidemia) refers to abnormally elevated levels of lipids
(cholesterol, triglycerides, or both) in the blood. It is a major modifiable risk
factor for atherosclerosis, coronary artery disease, and stroke. Management
includes lifestyle modifications and pharmacotherapy (statins, ezetimibe,
,disease) are pathognomonic for Parkinson disease. Deep brain stimulation of
the subthalamic nucleus or globus pallidus internus is indicated for patients
with motor fluctuations despite optimal medical management.
80. Which condition is a result of the local dilation of a blood vessel due to
weakening of its walls?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Aneurysm
C. Varicose veins
D. Dissection
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
This question reinforces the concept from question 30. An aneurysm is defined
as a localized, pathological dilation of a blood vessel due to weakening of the
vessel wall. True aneurysms involve all three layers of the vessel wall (intima,
media, adventitia), while false aneurysms (pseudoaneurysms) involve disruption
of the vessel wall with blood contained by surrounding tissue. Common sites
include the aorta (abdominal and thoracic), cerebral arteries, and popliteal
arteries.
,D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides
What is the primary determinant of oncotic pressure?
Albumin
Form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins
Oncotic Pressure
What is the difference between adult and child immunity?
Naive T Cells
Fluid and electrolyte levels are regulated by _________________, which
regulates actions such as thirst, ADH, the kidneys, and RAAS.
Osmoreceptors
What are the causes of dehydration?
#Excessive loss
#Inadequate intake
#Both
What s/sx are associated with dehydration?
#Dry mucous membranes
#Decreased skin turgor
#Decreased urine output
#Low blood pressure
#Tachycardia
#Weak heart rate
#Confusion
A patient with a viral illness and severe vomiting has an elevated CO2 level
and pH of 7.53. She is breathing slowly. What condition does she have?
,A condition in which the heart's mitral valve does not close tightly, which allows
blood to flow backward in the heart causing backup of blood and hydrostatic
pressure into the left atrium, pulmonary veins, and pulmonary capillaries -
resulting in pulmonary edema.
What is heart vegetation?
Abnormal growths (vegetations) that contain collections of bacteria may form in
the heart at the site of the infection and damage the heart valves, which can
cause them to leak.
**Can lead to endocarditis.
What is endocarditis?
A life-threatening inflammation of the inner lining of the heart's chambers and
valves (endocardium).
A patient asks the provider about a new diagnosis of aortic stenosis. What
does the provider explain about stenosis?
It is caused by calcium deposits forming around the rim of the valve, which
reduces the flexibility of the valve.
It describes the valve leaflets shifting into the atrium with contraction, due
to thickening of the valve leaflets.
It is a thickening and narrowing of the valve that decreases the ability of
blood to move through the valve.
It is a failure of the valve to close properly, due to damage to the chordae
tendineae that anchor the valve leaflets.
It is a thickening and narrowing of the valve that decreases the ability of blood
to move through the valve.
**A narrowing or stricture to the blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta
and may also affect the pressure in the left atrium.
Which type of valve defect leads to a diastolic murmur?
, Transverse fracture
Avulsion fracture
Comminuted fracture
Avulsion fracture
Greenstick = small, slender crack in bone
Transverse = straight break across bone
Comminuted = break in 3-4 places
What happens in dehydrated patients? _________ levels are high and
_______________ is activated.
ADH, RAAS
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢80 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Digital preview sample - complete document available after purchase
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam .................................................................. 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides ..................... 42
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 107
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient has severe itching on the face. The physical exam reveals dry
skin and small lesions. The patient has a family history of allergic rhinitis.
The physician prescribes topical anti-itch cream and instructs daily skin
care. Which condition is described?
A. Psoriasis
B. Eczema
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Urticaria
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Eczema (atopic dermatitis) is a chronic inflammatory skin condition
characterized by pruritus (itching), dry skin, and erythematous papules or
vesicles. It is strongly associated with a personal or family history of atopy
(allergic rhinitis, asthma). Treatment includes emollients, topical
corticosteroids, and trigger avoidance. Psoriasis (A) presents with well-
demarcated plaques with silvery scale. Contact dermatitis (C) requires an
identifiable irritant/allergen exposure. Urticaria (D) presents as wheals.
,2. A patient's record indicates a skin condition in which depigmentation
appears on different parts of the body that are often exposed to sunlight. A
skin biopsy reveals a lack of melanocytes. Which condition does this
describe?
A. Albinism
B. Vitiligo
C. Melasma
D. Tinea versicolor
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Vitiligo is an autoimmune disorder characterized by the destruction of
melanocytes, resulting in depigmented macules or patches commonly on sun-
exposed areas (face, hands, arms). Histology confirms the absence of
melanocytes. Albinism (A) is a congenital reduction in melanin synthesis.
Melasma (C) presents with hyperpigmentation. Tinea versicolor (D) is a fungal
infection causing hypopigmented or hyperpigmented patches.
3. Medical records show that a patient presented with a skin condition
characterized by blackheads. The patient has scarring from this ongoing
problem and was prescribed antibacterial solution. Which condition is
described?
A. Rosacea
B. Acne vulgaris
C. Seborrheic dermatitis
D. Folliculitis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Acne vulgaris is a disorder of the pilosebaceous unit characterized by
comedones (blackheads and whiteheads), papules, pustules, and potential
scarring. Treatment includes topical antibacterial agents (benzoyl peroxide,
clindamycin), retinoids, and systemic therapies for severe cases. Rosacea (A)
presents with erythema and telangiectasias without comedones. Folliculitis (D)
involves hair follicle inflammation.
,antibodies (immunoglobulins) specific to the pathogen. Red blood cells (A)
transport oxygen. Phagocytes (C) such as neutrophils and macrophages engulf
pathogens. Mast cells and basophils (D) produce histamine.
16. What appropriately describes innate immunity?
A. The specific pathogen-fighting system that develops after initial exposure
and improves with each subsequent encounter
B. The general pathogen-fighting system people are born with that does not
change over time
C. The system that produces memory cells for rapid future response
D. The system that relies solely on antibody production
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Innate immunity is the body's first line of defense, present at birth and non-
specific. It includes physical barriers (skin, mucous membranes), chemical
barriers (stomach acid, lysozyme), and cellular defenses (phagocytes, NK cells).
Unlike adaptive immunity, it does not develop memory or improve with
repeated exposure. Options A, C, and D describe characteristics of adaptive
immunity.
17. What are the characteristics of helper T cells?
A. They directly destroy infected host cells
B. They activate B cells and produce small cells called cytokines
C. They suppress immune responses to prevent autoimmunity
D. They produce antibodies upon antigen stimulation
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Helper T cells (CD4+ T cells) are central regulators of the adaptive immune
response. They recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules and
release cytokines that activate B cells, cytotoxic T cells, and macrophages.
,infarction. Risk factors include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, smoking, and
diabetes mellitus.
37. Which type of anemia is characterized by insufficient or totally absent
RBC production and results in a patient having the inability to fight
infection and having a tendency to bleed?
A. Iron deficiency anemia
B. Aplastic anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Hemolytic anemia
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Aplastic anemia is a bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by
pancytopenia (deficiency of all blood cell lines). The absence of red blood cells
causes anemia, the absence of white blood cells causes infection susceptibility,
and the absence of platelets causes bleeding tendency. It can be idiopathic or
caused by toxins, radiation, medications, or viral infections. Bone marrow
biopsy shows hypocellularity.
38. What is the definition of hyperlipidemia?
A. Elevated levels of glucose in the bloodstream
B. Elevated levels of lipids in the bloodstream
C. Elevated levels of urea nitrogen in the bloodstream
D. Elevated levels of ketones in the bloodstream
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Hyperlipidemia (dyslipidemia) refers to abnormally elevated levels of lipids
(cholesterol, triglycerides, or both) in the blood. It is a major modifiable risk
factor for atherosclerosis, coronary artery disease, and stroke. Management
includes lifestyle modifications and pharmacotherapy (statins, ezetimibe,
,disease) are pathognomonic for Parkinson disease. Deep brain stimulation of
the subthalamic nucleus or globus pallidus internus is indicated for patients
with motor fluctuations despite optimal medical management.
80. Which condition is a result of the local dilation of a blood vessel due to
weakening of its walls?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Aneurysm
C. Varicose veins
D. Dissection
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
This question reinforces the concept from question 30. An aneurysm is defined
as a localized, pathological dilation of a blood vessel due to weakening of the
vessel wall. True aneurysms involve all three layers of the vessel wall (intima,
media, adventitia), while false aneurysms (pseudoaneurysms) involve disruption
of the vessel wall with blood contained by surrounding tissue. Common sites
include the aorta (abdominal and thoracic), cerebral arteries, and popliteal
arteries.
,D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides
What is the primary determinant of oncotic pressure?
Albumin
Form of osmotic pressure exerted by proteins
Oncotic Pressure
What is the difference between adult and child immunity?
Naive T Cells
Fluid and electrolyte levels are regulated by _________________, which
regulates actions such as thirst, ADH, the kidneys, and RAAS.
Osmoreceptors
What are the causes of dehydration?
#Excessive loss
#Inadequate intake
#Both
What s/sx are associated with dehydration?
#Dry mucous membranes
#Decreased skin turgor
#Decreased urine output
#Low blood pressure
#Tachycardia
#Weak heart rate
#Confusion
A patient with a viral illness and severe vomiting has an elevated CO2 level
and pH of 7.53. She is breathing slowly. What condition does she have?
,A condition in which the heart's mitral valve does not close tightly, which allows
blood to flow backward in the heart causing backup of blood and hydrostatic
pressure into the left atrium, pulmonary veins, and pulmonary capillaries -
resulting in pulmonary edema.
What is heart vegetation?
Abnormal growths (vegetations) that contain collections of bacteria may form in
the heart at the site of the infection and damage the heart valves, which can
cause them to leak.
**Can lead to endocarditis.
What is endocarditis?
A life-threatening inflammation of the inner lining of the heart's chambers and
valves (endocardium).
A patient asks the provider about a new diagnosis of aortic stenosis. What
does the provider explain about stenosis?
It is caused by calcium deposits forming around the rim of the valve, which
reduces the flexibility of the valve.
It describes the valve leaflets shifting into the atrium with contraction, due
to thickening of the valve leaflets.
It is a thickening and narrowing of the valve that decreases the ability of
blood to move through the valve.
It is a failure of the valve to close properly, due to damage to the chordae
tendineae that anchor the valve leaflets.
It is a thickening and narrowing of the valve that decreases the ability of blood
to move through the valve.
**A narrowing or stricture to the blood flow from the left ventricle to the aorta
and may also affect the pressure in the left atrium.
Which type of valve defect leads to a diastolic murmur?
, Transverse fracture
Avulsion fracture
Comminuted fracture
Avulsion fracture
Greenstick = small, slender crack in bone
Transverse = straight break across bone
Comminuted = break in 3-4 places
What happens in dehydrated patients? _________ levels are high and
_______________ is activated.
ADH, RAAS
