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NUR 302 Advanced Pharmacology Final
Exam
Q1. Which of the following actions is an example of the implementation phase of the
nursing process?
A) Documenting a patient's description of their current pain level.
B) Repositioning the patient every two hours to prevent skin breakdown.
C) Determining if the patient's blood pressure has decreased after administering an
antihypertensive.
D) Formulating a goal for the patient to maintain adequate fluid intake.
Rationale: The implementation phase involves performing the nursing interventions
planned to help the patient achieve their goals.
Q2. A nurse is gathering data from a newly admitted patient. Which of the following
is an example of subjective data?
A) The patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg.
B) The patient has a 2-inch surgical incision on the abdomen.
C) The patient's urine output is 400 mL in 8 hours.
D) The patient states, "I have a sharp pain in my lower abdomen."
Rationale: Subjective data includes symptoms, feelings, and perceptions that are
reported by the patient and cannot be directly measured by the nurse.
Q3. The nurse is evaluating the care provided to a patient who had surgery
yesterday. Which action best demonstrates the evaluation phase?
A) Taking the patient's vital signs and noting a temperature of 38.2°C.
B) Asking the patient to rate their pain on a scale of 1 to 10 after administering
pain medication.
C) Administering the prescribed pain medication to the patient.
D) Developing a plan of care to manage the patient's postoperative pain.
Rationale: Evaluation involves determining the patient's response to nursing
interventions to see if the goals and expected outcomes were achieved.
Q4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of an adult patient. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
A) Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg.
B) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min.
C) Oral temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F).
D) Heart rate of 112 beats/min.
Rationale: A heart rate of 112 beats per minute is considered tachycardia (above the
normal adult resting range of 60-100 bpm) and requires immediate reporting.
Q5. When assessing a patient's apical pulse, where should the nurse place the
stethoscope?
A) Second intercostal space, right sternal border.
B) Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border.
C) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line.
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D) Third intercostal space, right sternal border.
Rationale: The apical pulse is best heard over the point of maximum impulse (PMI),
which is located at the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.
Q6. Which of the following factors is most likely to cause an increase in a patient's
respiratory rate?
A) Hypothermia.
B) Opioid medication administration.
C) An acute infection.
D) Deep sleep.
Rationale: An acute infection often leads to fever. As body temperature rises, the
metabolic rate increases, causing the body to demand more oxygen and thereby
increasing the respiratory rate.
Q7. When preparing to care for a patient requiring airborne precautions, the nurse
must put on personal protective equipment (PPE). What is the correct sequence for
donning PPE?
A) Gown, mask or respirator, goggles, gloves.
B) Gloves, gown, goggles, mask or respirator.
C) Mask or respirator, gown, gloves, goggles.
D) Gown, gloves, goggles, mask or respirator.
Rationale: The standard and logical order for putting on PPE is to don the gown first,
then the mask/respirator, goggles, and lastly the gloves.
Q8. A patient is admitted with a highly contagious respiratory illness requiring
airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for this
patient?
A) Place the patient in a private room with negative air pressure.
B) Wear a standard surgical mask when entering the room.
C) Keep the patient's door open to allow for better ventilation.
D) Use standard precautions only, as the illness is not contact-transmissible.
Rationale: Airborne precautions require a private room with negative air pressure to
prevent infectious particles from escaping into the hallway.
Q9. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about hand hygiene. Which of the
following statements by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should use soap and water rather than alcohol-based hand rub when my hands
are visibly soiled."
B) "Alcohol-based hand rubs are effective against Clostridium difficile spores."
C) "I must wash my hands after removing gloves."
D) "Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection."
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rubs are not effective against C. difficile spores; soap
and water must be used to mechanically wash them away.
Q10. Before administering a medication, the nurse must verify the patient's identity.
Which of the following is an acceptable patient identifier in a healthcare setting?
A) Patient's room number and bed designation.
B) Patient's name and date of birth.
C) Patient's medical diagnosis.
D) Patient's primary care physician.
Rationale: The patient's name and date of birth are standard, reliable identifiers used
to ensure the right medication is given to the right patient.
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Q11. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult
patient. Which of the following is considered the safest and most preferred injection
site for most adult medications?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Deltoid
C) Ventrogluteal
D) Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred because it is free of major blood
vessels and nerves and consists of a thick muscle mass.
Q12. A patient has been prescribed a new antihypertensive medication. After
administering the first dose, what is the most important nursing action?
A) Documenting the medication administration in the patient's chart.
B) Instructing the patient on how to take the medication at home.
C) Assessing the patient for dizziness or a drop in blood pressure.
D) Encouraging the patient to drink a full glass of water.
Rationale: The nurse must closely monitor the patient for adverse effects—such as
orthostatic hypotension or dizziness—immediately after giving the first dose.
Q13. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
severe dyspnea (shortness of breath). Which of the following positions should the
nurse assist the patient into to ease breathing?
A) Supine
B) Trendelenburg
C) Orthopneic
D) Prone
Rationale: In the orthopneic (or tripod) position, the patient sits upright and leans
forward, maximizing thoracic expansion and aiding in breathing.
Q14. To prevent the development of pressure ulcers, the nurse should reposition a
bedridden patient at least every:
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 6 hours
Rationale: Standard nursing guidelines recommend turning and repositioning
immobile patients at least every 2 hours to relieve pressure and maintain tissue
perfusion.
Q15. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from a lumbar puncture
procedure. The nurse should ensure the patient is maintained in which of the
following positions?
A) High Fowler's
B) Prone
C) Supine
D) Sims'
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, patients are often placed flat in the supine
position for several hours to help the puncture site seal and prevent a post-lumbar
puncture headache.
Q16. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the nursing code of ethics?
A) To provide legal protection for the hospital system.
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NUR 302 Advanced Pharmacology Final
Exam
Q1. Which of the following actions is an example of the implementation phase of the
nursing process?
A) Documenting a patient's description of their current pain level.
B) Repositioning the patient every two hours to prevent skin breakdown.
C) Determining if the patient's blood pressure has decreased after administering an
antihypertensive.
D) Formulating a goal for the patient to maintain adequate fluid intake.
Rationale: The implementation phase involves performing the nursing interventions
planned to help the patient achieve their goals.
Q2. A nurse is gathering data from a newly admitted patient. Which of the following
is an example of subjective data?
A) The patient's blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg.
B) The patient has a 2-inch surgical incision on the abdomen.
C) The patient's urine output is 400 mL in 8 hours.
D) The patient states, "I have a sharp pain in my lower abdomen."
Rationale: Subjective data includes symptoms, feelings, and perceptions that are
reported by the patient and cannot be directly measured by the nurse.
Q3. The nurse is evaluating the care provided to a patient who had surgery
yesterday. Which action best demonstrates the evaluation phase?
A) Taking the patient's vital signs and noting a temperature of 38.2°C.
B) Asking the patient to rate their pain on a scale of 1 to 10 after administering
pain medication.
C) Administering the prescribed pain medication to the patient.
D) Developing a plan of care to manage the patient's postoperative pain.
Rationale: Evaluation involves determining the patient's response to nursing
interventions to see if the goals and expected outcomes were achieved.
Q4. The nurse is assessing the vital signs of an adult patient. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
A) Blood pressure 118/76 mmHg.
B) Respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min.
C) Oral temperature of 37.2°C (99.0°F).
D) Heart rate of 112 beats/min.
Rationale: A heart rate of 112 beats per minute is considered tachycardia (above the
normal adult resting range of 60-100 bpm) and requires immediate reporting.
Q5. When assessing a patient's apical pulse, where should the nurse place the
stethoscope?
A) Second intercostal space, right sternal border.
B) Fourth intercostal space, left sternal border.
C) Fifth intercostal space, midclavicular line.
,3|Page
D) Third intercostal space, right sternal border.
Rationale: The apical pulse is best heard over the point of maximum impulse (PMI),
which is located at the fifth intercostal space at the left midclavicular line.
Q6. Which of the following factors is most likely to cause an increase in a patient's
respiratory rate?
A) Hypothermia.
B) Opioid medication administration.
C) An acute infection.
D) Deep sleep.
Rationale: An acute infection often leads to fever. As body temperature rises, the
metabolic rate increases, causing the body to demand more oxygen and thereby
increasing the respiratory rate.
Q7. When preparing to care for a patient requiring airborne precautions, the nurse
must put on personal protective equipment (PPE). What is the correct sequence for
donning PPE?
A) Gown, mask or respirator, goggles, gloves.
B) Gloves, gown, goggles, mask or respirator.
C) Mask or respirator, gown, gloves, goggles.
D) Gown, gloves, goggles, mask or respirator.
Rationale: The standard and logical order for putting on PPE is to don the gown first,
then the mask/respirator, goggles, and lastly the gloves.
Q8. A patient is admitted with a highly contagious respiratory illness requiring
airborne precautions. Which of the following interventions is appropriate for this
patient?
A) Place the patient in a private room with negative air pressure.
B) Wear a standard surgical mask when entering the room.
C) Keep the patient's door open to allow for better ventilation.
D) Use standard precautions only, as the illness is not contact-transmissible.
Rationale: Airborne precautions require a private room with negative air pressure to
prevent infectious particles from escaping into the hallway.
Q9. The nurse is teaching a nursing student about hand hygiene. Which of the
following statements by the student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "I should use soap and water rather than alcohol-based hand rub when my hands
are visibly soiled."
B) "Alcohol-based hand rubs are effective against Clostridium difficile spores."
C) "I must wash my hands after removing gloves."
D) "Hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection."
Rationale: Alcohol-based hand rubs are not effective against C. difficile spores; soap
and water must be used to mechanically wash them away.
Q10. Before administering a medication, the nurse must verify the patient's identity.
Which of the following is an acceptable patient identifier in a healthcare setting?
A) Patient's room number and bed designation.
B) Patient's name and date of birth.
C) Patient's medical diagnosis.
D) Patient's primary care physician.
Rationale: The patient's name and date of birth are standard, reliable identifiers used
to ensure the right medication is given to the right patient.
, 4|Page
Q11. The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular (IM) injection to an adult
patient. Which of the following is considered the safest and most preferred injection
site for most adult medications?
A) Dorsogluteal
B) Deltoid
C) Ventrogluteal
D) Vastus lateralis
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is preferred because it is free of major blood
vessels and nerves and consists of a thick muscle mass.
Q12. A patient has been prescribed a new antihypertensive medication. After
administering the first dose, what is the most important nursing action?
A) Documenting the medication administration in the patient's chart.
B) Instructing the patient on how to take the medication at home.
C) Assessing the patient for dizziness or a drop in blood pressure.
D) Encouraging the patient to drink a full glass of water.
Rationale: The nurse must closely monitor the patient for adverse effects—such as
orthostatic hypotension or dizziness—immediately after giving the first dose.
Q13. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing
severe dyspnea (shortness of breath). Which of the following positions should the
nurse assist the patient into to ease breathing?
A) Supine
B) Trendelenburg
C) Orthopneic
D) Prone
Rationale: In the orthopneic (or tripod) position, the patient sits upright and leans
forward, maximizing thoracic expansion and aiding in breathing.
Q14. To prevent the development of pressure ulcers, the nurse should reposition a
bedridden patient at least every:
A) 1 hour
B) 2 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 6 hours
Rationale: Standard nursing guidelines recommend turning and repositioning
immobile patients at least every 2 hours to relieve pressure and maintain tissue
perfusion.
Q15. A nurse is caring for a patient who has just returned from a lumbar puncture
procedure. The nurse should ensure the patient is maintained in which of the
following positions?
A) High Fowler's
B) Prone
C) Supine
D) Sims'
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, patients are often placed flat in the supine
position for several hours to help the puncture site seal and prevent a post-lumbar
puncture headache.
Q16. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the nursing code of ethics?
A) To provide legal protection for the hospital system.
