Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 (Latest 2026/2027
Update) Maternal-Newborn Nursing | Questions
and Verified Answers 100% Correct | Grade A -
Fortis 2026/2027
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
• Intrapartum Care & Labor Management
• High-Risk Pregnancy & Complications
• Postpartum Care & Complications
• Newborn Assessment & Care
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Antepartum Care & Fetal Development | Q1-Q15 | Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 28-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal clinic for her first visit.
She reports nausea and breast tenderness but is otherwise well. Which assessment finding at this
gestational age would the nurse expect to be normal?
A. Fetal heart tones audible with a Doppler at 180 beats per minute
B. Uterine fundus palpable at the level of the umbilicus
C. Quickening felt by the mother as distinct fetal movements
D. Cervical dilation of 4 centimeters with bloody show
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fetal heart tones become audible with Doppler between 10-12 weeks gestation at a normal rate of 110-160 bpm. The uterine
fundus reaches the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks. Quickening typically occurs at 18-20 weeks in primigravidas.
Cervical dilation with bloody show indicates labor, not a normal first trimester finding.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 24 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the function of the
placenta. Which response best describes the primary role of this organ in maintaining the
pregnancy?
A. The placenta produces progesterone to maintain the endometrial lining and prevent menstruation
B. The placenta filters all maternal antibodies to prevent fetal infection
C. The placenta stores maternal blood to supply oxygen during labor contractions
D. The placenta converts glucose into fat for long-term fetal energy storage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The placenta produces progesterone, which is essential for maintaining the thickened endometrium and preventing uterine
contractions that would terminate the pregnancy. Maternal antibodies (IgG) actually cross the placenta to provide passive
immunity. The placenta facilitates gas exchange but does not store blood. It does not convert glucose to fat for storage.
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 42
,--- Antepartum Care & Fetal Development (continued) ---
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A nurse is reviewing the menstrual history of a 26-year-old woman who states her last menstrual
period began on March 15. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery?
A. December 8 of the current year
B. December 22 of the current year
C. January 8 of the following year
D. January 22 of the following year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP and subtracting 3 months.
March 15 plus 7 days equals March 22; subtracting 3 months yields December 22. This rule assumes a 28-day cycle and is
most accurate when the LMP is known with certainty.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation undergoes a quadruple marker screening
test. The results show an elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level. What is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A. Schedule immediate termination of the pregnancy
B. Order a targeted ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects
C. Begin weekly non-stress tests starting at 28 weeks
D. Administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Elevated MSAFP is associated with open neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. A targeted ultrasound is
the appropriate next step to visualize the fetal spine and cranium. Termination is not indicated without confirmed diagnosis.
Non-stress tests monitor fetal well-being later in pregnancy. Rh immune globulin is unrelated to MSAFP screening.
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 42
, --- Antepartum Care & Fetal Development (continued) ---
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A nurse is caring for a 30-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation with type O negative
blood type. The indirect Coombs test is negative. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks and again within 72 hours after delivery
B. Schedule a direct Coombs test on the newborn immediately after birth
C. Advise the patient that no further Rh testing is needed during this pregnancy
D. Prepare the patient for an emergency cesarean section due to Rh incompatibility risk
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours postpartum to prevent
alloimmunization. A negative indirect Coombs test confirms the mother has not been sensitized. The direct Coombs test is
performed on the newborn, not the mother. Rh-negative mothers do require ongoing monitoring. Emergency cesarean is not
indicated based solely on Rh status.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 22-year-old pregnant woman at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the best dietary
sources of folic acid. The nurse knows that adequate folic acid intake is critical during which
period of fetal development?
A. During the first trimester when neural tube closure occurs
B. During the second trimester when fetal bones ossify
C. During the third trimester when fetal brain weight triples
D. Only during the preconception period before pregnancy is confirmed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Neural tube closure occurs between 21-28 days after conception, making folic acid supplementation critical during the first
trimester. Adequate folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects by up to 70%. While folic acid remains important
throughout pregnancy, the neural tube formation window is the most critical period.
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 42
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 (Latest 2026/2027
Update) Maternal-Newborn Nursing | Questions
and Verified Answers 100% Correct | Grade A -
Fortis 2026/2027
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Antepartum Care & Fetal Development
• Intrapartum Care & Labor Management
• High-Risk Pregnancy & Complications
• Postpartum Care & Complications
• Newborn Assessment & Care
COVER PAGE - 1
,SECTION 1 | Antepartum Care & Fetal Development | Q1-Q15 | Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 28-year-old primigravida at 10 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal clinic for her first visit.
She reports nausea and breast tenderness but is otherwise well. Which assessment finding at this
gestational age would the nurse expect to be normal?
A. Fetal heart tones audible with a Doppler at 180 beats per minute
B. Uterine fundus palpable at the level of the umbilicus
C. Quickening felt by the mother as distinct fetal movements
D. Cervical dilation of 4 centimeters with bloody show
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Fetal heart tones become audible with Doppler between 10-12 weeks gestation at a normal rate of 110-160 bpm. The uterine
fundus reaches the umbilicus at approximately 20 weeks. Quickening typically occurs at 18-20 weeks in primigravidas.
Cervical dilation with bloody show indicates labor, not a normal first trimester finding.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 32-year-old pregnant woman at 24 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the function of the
placenta. Which response best describes the primary role of this organ in maintaining the
pregnancy?
A. The placenta produces progesterone to maintain the endometrial lining and prevent menstruation
B. The placenta filters all maternal antibodies to prevent fetal infection
C. The placenta stores maternal blood to supply oxygen during labor contractions
D. The placenta converts glucose into fat for long-term fetal energy storage
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The placenta produces progesterone, which is essential for maintaining the thickened endometrium and preventing uterine
contractions that would terminate the pregnancy. Maternal antibodies (IgG) actually cross the placenta to provide passive
immunity. The placenta facilitates gas exchange but does not store blood. It does not convert glucose to fat for storage.
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 2 of 42
,--- Antepartum Care & Fetal Development (continued) ---
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A nurse is reviewing the menstrual history of a 26-year-old woman who states her last menstrual
period began on March 15. Using Naegele's rule, what is the estimated date of delivery?
A. December 8 of the current year
B. December 22 of the current year
C. January 8 of the following year
D. January 22 of the following year
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery by adding 7 days to the first day of the LMP and subtracting 3 months.
March 15 plus 7 days equals March 22; subtracting 3 months yields December 22. This rule assumes a 28-day cycle and is
most accurate when the LMP is known with certainty.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 35-year-old pregnant woman at 18 weeks gestation undergoes a quadruple marker screening
test. The results show an elevated maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) level. What is the
most appropriate next step in management?
A. Schedule immediate termination of the pregnancy
B. Order a targeted ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects
C. Begin weekly non-stress tests starting at 28 weeks
D. Administer Rh immune globulin within 72 hours
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Elevated MSAFP is associated with open neural tube defects such as spina bifida and anencephaly. A targeted ultrasound is
the appropriate next step to visualize the fetal spine and cranium. Termination is not indicated without confirmed diagnosis.
Non-stress tests monitor fetal well-being later in pregnancy. Rh immune globulin is unrelated to MSAFP screening.
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3 of 42
, --- Antepartum Care & Fetal Development (continued) ---
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A nurse is caring for a 30-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation with type O negative
blood type. The indirect Coombs test is negative. What is the priority nursing intervention?
A. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) at 28 weeks and again within 72 hours after delivery
B. Schedule a direct Coombs test on the newborn immediately after birth
C. Advise the patient that no further Rh testing is needed during this pregnancy
D. Prepare the patient for an emergency cesarean section due to Rh incompatibility risk
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative mothers at 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours postpartum to prevent
alloimmunization. A negative indirect Coombs test confirms the mother has not been sensitized. The direct Coombs test is
performed on the newborn, not the mother. Rh-negative mothers do require ongoing monitoring. Emergency cesarean is not
indicated based solely on Rh status.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 22-year-old pregnant woman at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse about the best dietary
sources of folic acid. The nurse knows that adequate folic acid intake is critical during which
period of fetal development?
A. During the first trimester when neural tube closure occurs
B. During the second trimester when fetal bones ossify
C. During the third trimester when fetal brain weight triples
D. Only during the preconception period before pregnancy is confirmed
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
Neural tube closure occurs between 21-28 days after conception, making folic acid supplementation critical during the first
trimester. Adequate folic acid reduces the risk of neural tube defects by up to 70%. While folic acid remains important
throughout pregnancy, the neural tube formation window is the most critical period.
Exam 2: NUR202 / NUR 202 - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 4 of 42
