NUR 112 HESI NEWEST ACTUAL EXAM TEST BANK | 300
VERIFIED QUESTIONS 2026/2027 EDITION | GRADED A+ |
UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING PRACTICE (Questions 1–60)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a female patient.
Which action demonstrates proper sterile technique?
A) Placing the sterile field on the bedside table and reaching over it
B) Opening the sterile kit away from the body and opening flaps outward
C) Using sterile gloves to set up, then changing to clean gloves for insertion
D) Placing the drainage bag below the bladder level after insertion
Correct: D
Rationale: Drainage bag must be below bladder to prevent reflux; A contaminates
field, B is incomplete, C violates sterility.
Q2. A nurse cares for a patient with an NG tube. Which finding confirms proper
placement?
A) Patient feels full after small meal
B) Aspiration of 50 mL bright red fluid
C) Clear drainage from tube
D) pH of aspirate is 3.5
Correct: D
Rationale: Gastric pH is 1.5–4.0; A is subjective, B indicates bleeding, C is
nonspecific.
Q3. What is the correct order of a physical assessment?
A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C) Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D) Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
Correct: B
1
,Rationale: For abdominal assessment, auscultate before palpation/percussion to
avoid altering bowel sounds.
Q4. A patient is on fall precautions. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Keep bed in high position
B) Place all personal items out of reach
C) Apply bilateral wrist restraints
D) Use bed alarm and keep call light within reach
Correct: D
Rationale: Bed alarm and call light promote safety; high bed increases fall risk,
restraints are last resort.
Q5. The nurse documents "patient ambulates 50 feet with minimal assistance."
Which part of the nursing process does this represent?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
Correct: D
Rationale: Evaluation compares outcomes to goals; this is a measurable outcome.
Q6. A patient’s vital signs: BP 90/60, HR 110, RR 24, temp 38.5°C. What is the
priority?
A) Administer antipyretic
B) Notify provider
C) Recheck BP in 15 minutes
D) Assess for infection source
Correct: B
Rationale: Hypotension with tachycardia and fever indicates possible sepsis;
notify provider immediately.
Q7. Which patient is at highest risk for skin breakdown?
A) Ambulatory patient with mild dementia
2
,B) Bedridden patient with urinary incontinence
C) Patient with a fractured femur in traction
D) Patient with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy
Correct: B
Rationale: Moisture and immobility are major risk factors; incontinence increases
skin breakdown risk.
Q8. A nurse uses the SBAR format to communicate with a provider. What does
"B" stand for?
A) Background
B) Baseline
C) Behavior
D) Briefing
Correct: A
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
Q9. A patient refuses medication. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Crush the medication and hide in food
B) Document refusal and notify provider
C) Coerce the patient to take it
D) Give it intramuscularly without consent
Correct: B
Rationale: Patient has right to refuse; document and inform provider; coercion is
unethical.
Q10. Which finding indicates proper placement of a peripheral IV?
A) Edema around insertion site
B) Blood return on aspiration
C) Infusion pump alarms
D) Patient reports burning sensation
Correct: B
Rationale: Blood return confirms intravascular placement; edema, burning, and
alarm indicate infiltration or phlebitis.
3
, Q11. A patient has an advance directive that designates a healthcare proxy. The
patient is now unable to make decisions. Who makes decisions?
A) The spouse
B) The oldest child
C) The healthcare proxy
D) The primary care provider
Correct: C
Rationale: The proxy is legally designated to make decisions when patient is
incapacitated.
Q12. Which position is best for an unconscious patient to maintain airway?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying (recovery)
C) Fowler's
D) Trendelenburg
Correct: B
Rationale: Side-lying prevents aspiration and keeps airway open.
Q13. A nurse is calculating intake and output. Which item should be included as
intake?
A) Ice chips
B) Tube feeding
C) IV fluids
D) All of the above
Correct: D
Rationale: All are intake; ice chips count as half volume.
Q14. The nurse observes a small fire in a patient's room. What is the first action?
A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Remove the patient from the room
C) Use a fire extinguisher
D) Close the door
4
VERIFIED QUESTIONS 2026/2027 EDITION | GRADED A+ |
UPDATED PER LATEST GUIDELINES
SECTION 1: FOUNDATIONS OF NURSING PRACTICE (Questions 1–60)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter for a female patient.
Which action demonstrates proper sterile technique?
A) Placing the sterile field on the bedside table and reaching over it
B) Opening the sterile kit away from the body and opening flaps outward
C) Using sterile gloves to set up, then changing to clean gloves for insertion
D) Placing the drainage bag below the bladder level after insertion
Correct: D
Rationale: Drainage bag must be below bladder to prevent reflux; A contaminates
field, B is incomplete, C violates sterility.
Q2. A nurse cares for a patient with an NG tube. Which finding confirms proper
placement?
A) Patient feels full after small meal
B) Aspiration of 50 mL bright red fluid
C) Clear drainage from tube
D) pH of aspirate is 3.5
Correct: D
Rationale: Gastric pH is 1.5–4.0; A is subjective, B indicates bleeding, C is
nonspecific.
Q3. What is the correct order of a physical assessment?
A) Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
B) Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C) Auscultation, inspection, palpation, percussion
D) Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
Correct: B
1
,Rationale: For abdominal assessment, auscultate before palpation/percussion to
avoid altering bowel sounds.
Q4. A patient is on fall precautions. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A) Keep bed in high position
B) Place all personal items out of reach
C) Apply bilateral wrist restraints
D) Use bed alarm and keep call light within reach
Correct: D
Rationale: Bed alarm and call light promote safety; high bed increases fall risk,
restraints are last resort.
Q5. The nurse documents "patient ambulates 50 feet with minimal assistance."
Which part of the nursing process does this represent?
A) Assessment
B) Diagnosis
C) Planning
D) Evaluation
Correct: D
Rationale: Evaluation compares outcomes to goals; this is a measurable outcome.
Q6. A patient’s vital signs: BP 90/60, HR 110, RR 24, temp 38.5°C. What is the
priority?
A) Administer antipyretic
B) Notify provider
C) Recheck BP in 15 minutes
D) Assess for infection source
Correct: B
Rationale: Hypotension with tachycardia and fever indicates possible sepsis;
notify provider immediately.
Q7. Which patient is at highest risk for skin breakdown?
A) Ambulatory patient with mild dementia
2
,B) Bedridden patient with urinary incontinence
C) Patient with a fractured femur in traction
D) Patient with diabetes and peripheral neuropathy
Correct: B
Rationale: Moisture and immobility are major risk factors; incontinence increases
skin breakdown risk.
Q8. A nurse uses the SBAR format to communicate with a provider. What does
"B" stand for?
A) Background
B) Baseline
C) Behavior
D) Briefing
Correct: A
Rationale: SBAR = Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation.
Q9. A patient refuses medication. What is the nurse's best action?
A) Crush the medication and hide in food
B) Document refusal and notify provider
C) Coerce the patient to take it
D) Give it intramuscularly without consent
Correct: B
Rationale: Patient has right to refuse; document and inform provider; coercion is
unethical.
Q10. Which finding indicates proper placement of a peripheral IV?
A) Edema around insertion site
B) Blood return on aspiration
C) Infusion pump alarms
D) Patient reports burning sensation
Correct: B
Rationale: Blood return confirms intravascular placement; edema, burning, and
alarm indicate infiltration or phlebitis.
3
, Q11. A patient has an advance directive that designates a healthcare proxy. The
patient is now unable to make decisions. Who makes decisions?
A) The spouse
B) The oldest child
C) The healthcare proxy
D) The primary care provider
Correct: C
Rationale: The proxy is legally designated to make decisions when patient is
incapacitated.
Q12. Which position is best for an unconscious patient to maintain airway?
A) Supine
B) Side-lying (recovery)
C) Fowler's
D) Trendelenburg
Correct: B
Rationale: Side-lying prevents aspiration and keeps airway open.
Q13. A nurse is calculating intake and output. Which item should be included as
intake?
A) Ice chips
B) Tube feeding
C) IV fluids
D) All of the above
Correct: D
Rationale: All are intake; ice chips count as half volume.
Q14. The nurse observes a small fire in a patient's room. What is the first action?
A) Pull the fire alarm
B) Remove the patient from the room
C) Use a fire extinguisher
D) Close the door
4
