SI Pharmacology II – Complete Exam Practice Questions &BSN 315 HE Answers 100 Questions with Verified Answers for Nightingale College --- Exam 1: Cardiovascular & Endocrine Medications 1. A female client with multiple sclerosis reports less fa

SI Pharmacology II – Complete Exam Practice Questions &BSN 315 HE Answers 100 Questions with Verified Answers for Nightingale College --- Exam 1: Cardiovascular & Endocrine Medications 1. A female client with multiple sclerosis reports less fatigue and improved memory since using ginkgo biloba. Which information is most important for the nurse to include in teaching? · A) Aspirin and NSAIDs interact with ginkgo · B) Nausea and diarrhea can occur · C) Anxiety and headaches may increase · D) Ginkgo biloba should be limited and not taken during pregnancy Rationale: Safety information regarding contraindications during pregnancy is essential due to potential teratogenic effects and bleeding risks. While interactions with NSAIDs/aspirin are important, the priority teaching addresses when use is contraindicated . 2. A client on digoxin therapy has a heart rate of 56 bpm, digoxin level of 2.8 ng/mL, and potassium of 3.2 mEq/L. What is the nurse's priority action? · A) Administer digoxin as ordered · B) Administer potassium supplement · C) Obtain a 12-lead EKG · D) Hold the digoxin and notify the healthcare provider Rationale: Signs of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia, elevated digoxin level (2.0 ng/mL), and hypokalemia (which increases toxicity risk). The nurse should withhold digoxin and notify the provider immediately . 3. A client receiving TMP-SMZ (Bactrim) for a UTI asks why two drugs are combined. What rationale should the nurse provide? · A) Each drug could damage kidneys if taken separately · B) One drug reduces side effects of the other · C) One provides relief while the other fights infection · D) The two drugs work together to reduce bacterial resistance Rationale: TMP-SMZ combines two antibiotics with different mechanisms of action to synergistically kill bacteria and decrease the chance of resistance development . 4. A client on Haldol for schizophrenia complains of jaw tightness and stiff neck. Which intervention should the nurse implement? · A) Give PRN dose of diphenhydramine (Benadryl) · B) Assess for other sensory hallucinations · C) Massage neck until muscles relax · D) Obtain a 12-lead EKG Rationale: Jaw tightness and stiff neck indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS), specifically acute dystonia. Diphenhydramine is an anticholinergic effective in resolving acute dystonic reactions . 5. Which intervention is most important for a client receiving Lispro (Humalog) insulin? · A) Check blood glucose every 6 hours · B) Provide meals at the same time insulin is given · C) Assess for hypoglycemia between meals · D) Keep oral glucose source available Rationale: Humalog is rapid-acting insulin with onset within 15 minutes and peak around 1 hour. Meals must be synchronized with administration to prevent hypoglycemia . 6. A client taking daily NSAIDs for rheumatoid arthritis is being treated for anemia. Which intervention is most important? · A) Observe for gastrointestinal bleeding · B) Monitor liver function tests · C) Protect skin from bruising · D) Offer dietary selections rich in iron Rationale: Chronic NSAID use increases risk of GI mucosal damage leading to bleeding, which can cause or worsen anemia. Identifying and addressing the cause is paramount . 7. A client has a theophylline level of 22 mcg/mL drawn yesterday. The prescription is to start PO theophylline today. Which action should the nurse implement? · A) Hold the theophylline dose and notify the healthcare provider · B) Start the client on a half-dose · C) Initiate the dose as planned · D) The client is not ready to be weaned from IV to PO Rationale: A theophylline level of 22 mcg/mL exceeds the therapeutic range (10-20 mcg/mL) and may indicate toxicity risk. The nurse must hold the dose and notify the provider to prevent cardiac arrhythmias or seizures . 8. Before a procedure requiring neuromuscular blocking agents, which lab finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? · A) Hypokalemia · B) Hyponatremia · C) Hypercalcemia · D) Hypomagnesemia Rationale: Hypokalemia increases the risk of adverse effects and prolonged neuromuscular blockade when neuromuscular blocking agents are given . 9. The anesthesiologist prescribes atropine sulfate IM STAT for a child going to surgery. What is the primary purpose? · A) Decrease oral secretions · B) Reduce the child's anxiety · C) Potentiate opioid effects · D) Prevent peritonitis Rationale: Atropine is an anticholinergic given preoperatively to reduce salivary and respiratory secretions, minimizing aspiration risk during anesthesia . 10. Which finding predisposes a client on digoxin to developing toxicity? · A) Low serum sodium · B) High serum sodium · C) Low serum potassium · D) High serum potassium Rationale: Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity because potassium and digoxin compete for binding sites on the sodium-potassium ATPase pump. Low potassium increases digoxin binding and toxicity risk . 11. A client receiving anti-infective therapy for postoperative infection complains of what symptom that suggests a superinfection? · A) "My mouth feels sore" · B) "I have a headache" · C) "My ears feel plugged up" · D) "I feel constipated" Rationale: A sore mouth suggests oral candidiasis, a common superinfection due to antibiotic-induced disruption of normal flora . 12. A client taking tetracycline (Sumycin) for urethritis also takes which medication that could interfere with its absorption? · A) Sucralfate (Carafate) · B) Hydrochlorothiazide (Diuril) · C) Acetaminophen (Tylenol) · D) Phenytoin (Dilantin) Rationale: Sucralfate binds tetracycline in the GI tract, decreasing its absorption. Clients should separate administration times . 13. A client receiving IV nitroglycerin for acute myocardial infarction reports chest pain. Which assessment finding indicates the medication is effective? · A) Decrease in level of chest pain · B) Increase in blood pressure · C) Clear breath sounds · D) Increase in urinary output Rationale: Nitroglycerin relieves angina by vasodilation, improving myocardial oxygen supply and decreasing chest pain . 14. Which laboratory finding represents achievement of a therapeutic goal for heparin administration? · A) Prothrombin time (PT) · B) Fibrin split products · C) Platelet count · D) Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) Rationale: Heparin prolongs PTT by inhibiting clotting factors in the intrinsic pathway. PT evaluates warfarin therapy . 15. A stuporous client suspected of opioid overdose becomes comatose. Which agent should the nurse prepare? · A) Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan) · B) Atropine sulfate · C) Vitamin K · D) Romazicon Rationale: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose effects including respiratory depression and coma .