NR 601 Primary Care Complete Course Bundle | Exam 1,
Exam 2, Exam 3, Midterm, Final & Comprehensive Exam
Study Guide (2026/2027) | Complete Nursing Exam Study
Guide MOST TESTED QUESTIONS FROM PAST PAPERS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||NEWEST
VERSION REVIEW
Contents
Exam 1 ................................................................................................................... 1
Exam 2.............................................................................................................. 51
Exam 3 ........................................................................................................ 119
Midterm exam ................................................................................................... 147
Final exam ...................................................................................................... 187
Exam 1
Question 1
Which statement best reflects the goal of primary care for the maturing and aged adult?
A. Cure all chronic diseases completely.
B. Focus only on acute complaints.
C. Optimize function, prevent decline, and manage chronic conditions using evidence-based
care.
D. Avoid discussing prognosis or goals of care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Primary care in older adults emphasizes maintaining function, preventing complications, and
managing chronic illness with guideline-based, person-centered care. Cure is often not realistic,
and ignoring chronic illness or goals of care fails to meet NP standards.
,Question 2
An NP caring for older adults wants to apply activity theory of aging. Which action aligns with
this theory?
A. Encouraging the patient to withdraw from social roles.
B. Promoting continued engagement in meaningful activities and roles.
C. Focusing only on physical limitations.
D. Avoiding discussion of hobbies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Activity theory holds that successful aging involves maintaining social roles and activities. NPs
support ongoing engagement to enhance quality of life and psychological well-being.
Question 3
Which intervention best represents anticipatory guidance for an older adult at risk for falls?
A. “Call us only if you fall.”
B. “You should stop walking to avoid falls.”
C. “Let’s review your home environment, footwear, vision, and medications to reduce fall risk.”
D. “Falls are inevitable at your age.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Anticipatory guidance proactively addresses modifiable risk factors (home hazards, vision,
footwear, meds) before events occur. Telling patients falls are inevitable or limiting activity
without assessment is inappropriate.
Question 4
Which is the most appropriate screening for falls in a community-dwelling older adult?
A. Asking only about dizziness.
B. “Have you fallen in the past year?” and assessing gait/balance (e.g., Timed Up and Go).
C. Performing ECG only.
D. Ordering a CT scan for all patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Fall risk screening includes asking about prior falls and directly assessing gait and balance (e.g.,
,TUG). Dizziness alone is insufficient, and routine imaging without indication is not
evidence-based.
Question 5
Which scenario demonstrates polypharmacy in an older adult?
A. Taking two medications for hypertension.
B. Using only one OTC analgesic as needed.
C. Taking eight chronic medications from multiple prescribers without reconciliation.
D. Discontinuing all meds abruptly.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Polypharmacy generally refers to the use of many medications, especially where risk of adverse
events and drug-drug interactions is high. Multiple prescribers without coordinated
reconciliation increases this risk.
Question 6
An older adult is taking diphenhydramine nightly for sleep. According to Beers Criteria, the NP
should:
A. Continue without concern.
B. Recognize it as potentially inappropriate due to anticholinergic and sedative effects.
C. Increase the dose for better sleep.
D. Add a benzodiazepine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Beers Criteria flag first-generation antihistamines (like diphenhydramine) as potentially
inappropriate in older adults because of anticholinergic burden, delirium, falls, and cognitive
impairment. Increasing or combining sedatives worsens risk.
Question 7
An older adult with chronic pain and depression is on multiple CNS-active medications. What is
the best NP approach?
A. Continue all medications indefinitely.
B. Gradually reduce CNS-active drugs where possible and use non-pharmacologic strategies.
, C. Stop all CNS meds immediately.
D. Add another opioid.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Older adults are vulnerable to sedation, falls, and cognitive changes from CNS-active
medications. NPs should deprescribe cautiously, exploring non-pharmacologic pain and mood
management, while avoiding abrupt withdrawal or adding opioids without strong indication.
Question 8
Which statement best describes palliative care in primary care?
A. Only for patients who are actively dying.
B. Focused solely on cancer.
C. Symptom management and support for patients with serious illness at any stage, alongside
disease-directed therapy.
D. Same as hospice.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Palliative care may be introduced early in serious illness, focusing on symptom control,
psychosocial support, and alignment of treatment with patient goals, regardless of prognosis.
Hospice is specific to end-of-life criteria.
Question 9
When using the SPIKES model to discuss a new serious diagnosis with an older adult, the “S” for
Setting includes:
A. Sharing results quickly in hallway to save time.
B. Ensuring privacy, sitting down, and minimizing interruptions.
C. Using only technical medical language.
D. Asking family to leave regardless of patient preference.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
SPIKES emphasizes appropriate setting: private, quiet space, clinician seated, and time
allocated. This supports clear communication and emotional processing. Rushed or public
disclosures undermine trust.
Exam 2, Exam 3, Midterm, Final & Comprehensive Exam
Study Guide (2026/2027) | Complete Nursing Exam Study
Guide MOST TESTED QUESTIONS FROM PAST PAPERS WITH
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+||NEWEST
VERSION REVIEW
Contents
Exam 1 ................................................................................................................... 1
Exam 2.............................................................................................................. 51
Exam 3 ........................................................................................................ 119
Midterm exam ................................................................................................... 147
Final exam ...................................................................................................... 187
Exam 1
Question 1
Which statement best reflects the goal of primary care for the maturing and aged adult?
A. Cure all chronic diseases completely.
B. Focus only on acute complaints.
C. Optimize function, prevent decline, and manage chronic conditions using evidence-based
care.
D. Avoid discussing prognosis or goals of care.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Primary care in older adults emphasizes maintaining function, preventing complications, and
managing chronic illness with guideline-based, person-centered care. Cure is often not realistic,
and ignoring chronic illness or goals of care fails to meet NP standards.
,Question 2
An NP caring for older adults wants to apply activity theory of aging. Which action aligns with
this theory?
A. Encouraging the patient to withdraw from social roles.
B. Promoting continued engagement in meaningful activities and roles.
C. Focusing only on physical limitations.
D. Avoiding discussion of hobbies.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Activity theory holds that successful aging involves maintaining social roles and activities. NPs
support ongoing engagement to enhance quality of life and psychological well-being.
Question 3
Which intervention best represents anticipatory guidance for an older adult at risk for falls?
A. “Call us only if you fall.”
B. “You should stop walking to avoid falls.”
C. “Let’s review your home environment, footwear, vision, and medications to reduce fall risk.”
D. “Falls are inevitable at your age.”
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Anticipatory guidance proactively addresses modifiable risk factors (home hazards, vision,
footwear, meds) before events occur. Telling patients falls are inevitable or limiting activity
without assessment is inappropriate.
Question 4
Which is the most appropriate screening for falls in a community-dwelling older adult?
A. Asking only about dizziness.
B. “Have you fallen in the past year?” and assessing gait/balance (e.g., Timed Up and Go).
C. Performing ECG only.
D. Ordering a CT scan for all patients.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Fall risk screening includes asking about prior falls and directly assessing gait and balance (e.g.,
,TUG). Dizziness alone is insufficient, and routine imaging without indication is not
evidence-based.
Question 5
Which scenario demonstrates polypharmacy in an older adult?
A. Taking two medications for hypertension.
B. Using only one OTC analgesic as needed.
C. Taking eight chronic medications from multiple prescribers without reconciliation.
D. Discontinuing all meds abruptly.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Polypharmacy generally refers to the use of many medications, especially where risk of adverse
events and drug-drug interactions is high. Multiple prescribers without coordinated
reconciliation increases this risk.
Question 6
An older adult is taking diphenhydramine nightly for sleep. According to Beers Criteria, the NP
should:
A. Continue without concern.
B. Recognize it as potentially inappropriate due to anticholinergic and sedative effects.
C. Increase the dose for better sleep.
D. Add a benzodiazepine.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Beers Criteria flag first-generation antihistamines (like diphenhydramine) as potentially
inappropriate in older adults because of anticholinergic burden, delirium, falls, and cognitive
impairment. Increasing or combining sedatives worsens risk.
Question 7
An older adult with chronic pain and depression is on multiple CNS-active medications. What is
the best NP approach?
A. Continue all medications indefinitely.
B. Gradually reduce CNS-active drugs where possible and use non-pharmacologic strategies.
, C. Stop all CNS meds immediately.
D. Add another opioid.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Older adults are vulnerable to sedation, falls, and cognitive changes from CNS-active
medications. NPs should deprescribe cautiously, exploring non-pharmacologic pain and mood
management, while avoiding abrupt withdrawal or adding opioids without strong indication.
Question 8
Which statement best describes palliative care in primary care?
A. Only for patients who are actively dying.
B. Focused solely on cancer.
C. Symptom management and support for patients with serious illness at any stage, alongside
disease-directed therapy.
D. Same as hospice.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Palliative care may be introduced early in serious illness, focusing on symptom control,
psychosocial support, and alignment of treatment with patient goals, regardless of prognosis.
Hospice is specific to end-of-life criteria.
Question 9
When using the SPIKES model to discuss a new serious diagnosis with an older adult, the “S” for
Setting includes:
A. Sharing results quickly in hallway to save time.
B. Ensuring privacy, sitting down, and minimizing interruptions.
C. Using only technical medical language.
D. Asking family to leave regardless of patient preference.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
SPIKES emphasizes appropriate setting: private, quiet space, clinician seated, and time
allocated. This supports clear communication and emotional processing. Rushed or public
disclosures undermine trust.
