ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL
DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
*Core Domains*
*- Medical-Surgical Nursing*
*- Pediatric Nursing*
*- Maternal-Newborn Nursing*
*- Mental Health Nursing*
*- Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies*
*- Nursing Leadership and Management*
*- Community Health Nursing*
*- Nutrition and Diet Therapy*
*Introduction*
*This examination is designed to assess the comprehensive clinical
knowledge, critical thinking, and decision-making skills required for entry-level professional
nursing practice. The content reflects the scope of practice across diverse healthcare
settings, emphasizing patient safety, evidence-based interventions, and ethical nursing
standards. Comprising one hundred multiple-choice questions in this section, the exam
utilizes scenario-based formats to challenge the candidate's ability to prioritize care,
interpret clinical data, and implement appropriate nursing actions. Success on this
assessment demonstrates mastery of foundational nursing theory and the practical
application of clinical judgment necessary to provide safe, effective, and high-quality patient-
centered care in real-world clinical environments.*
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first? A. Insert a padded tongue blade into
the client’s mouth. B. Restrain the client’s limbs to prevent injury. C. Turn the client to
a side-lying position. D. Suction the client’s oropharynx. C. Turn the client to a
side-lying position. Explanation: Ensuring a patent airway is the priority. Turning
the client to the side prevents aspiration of secretions and keeps the tongue from
obstructing the airway.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure who reports increased shortness of
breath. Which assessment finding indicates a potential exacerbation? A. Crackles in
, the lung bases. B. Distended neck veins. C. Dependent edema in the ankles. D.
Increased appetite. A. Crackles in the lung bases. Explanation: Crackles are a
hallmark sign of fluid volume overload in the lungs (pulmonary edema), which occurs
when the left ventricle fails to pump effectively, leading to backflow.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin. Which statement by
the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. I will shake the insulin vial
vigorously before drawing up the dose. B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent
lipohypertrophy. C. I will inject the insulin into the same site every morning. D. I will
discard the vial after the first use. B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent
lipohypertrophy. Explanation: Rotating injection sites is essential to prevent
tissue damage and ensure consistent insulin absorption.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous
bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take? A. Increase
the wall suction. B. Check the system for an air leak. C. Clamp the chest tube
immediately. D. Document the finding as expected. B. Check the system for an air
leak. Explanation: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates a
leak in the system, which must be identified and corrected immediately to maintain
proper thoracic pressure.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which intervention
should be included in the plan? A. Allow the client to choose meal times. B.
Encourage the client to exercise to increase appetite. C. Set specific, small, and
achievable weight gain goals. D. Focus the conversation on food and caloric intake
during meals. C. Set specific, small, and achievable weight gain goals.
Explanation: Establishing clear, realistic weight gain goals helps monitor progress and
provides a sense of control for the client within a structured environment.
6. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding
should be reported to the provider immediately? A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL. B. Platelets
45,000/mm3. C. White blood cell count 6,000/mm3. D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L. B.
Platelets 45,000/mm3. Explanation: Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) puts the
client at a high risk for bleeding, requiring immediate provider notification and
implementation of bleeding precautions.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for lithium. Which finding should
the nurse prioritize? A. Fine hand tremors. B. Increased thirst. C. Confusion and
coarse tremors. D. Mild nausea. C. Confusion and coarse tremors.
Explanation: These are signs of lithium toxicity, which is a medical emergency
requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
,8. A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone a total hip arthroplasty. Which
positioning is correct? A. Keep the hip in adduction. B. Use an abduction pillow
between the legs. C. Flex the hip to 110 degrees. D. Ensure the client sleeps on the
operative side. B. Use an abduction pillow between the legs. Explanation:
Maintaining abduction prevents dislocation of the new hip prosthesis during the
postoperative period.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is contraindicated for a client.
Which action is the priority? A. Administer the medication and monitor for adverse
effects. B. Contact the provider to clarify the prescription. C. Notify the pharmacy to
check for errors. D. Document the contraindication in the chart. B. Contact the
provider to clarify the prescription. Explanation: Patient safety is the priority; the
nurse must clarify any questionable or contraindicated orders with the prescribing
provider before administration.
10. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes a bluish discoloration of the hands and
feet. Which action should the nurse take? A. Notify the pediatrician immediately. B.
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Document this as acrocyanosis. D. Place the
newborn under a radiant warmer. C. Document this as acrocyanosis.
Explanation: Acrocyanosis is a normal finding in newborns during the first 24 to 48
hours of life due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
medication should the nurse anticipate administering? A. Furosemide. B.
Spironolactone. C. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate. D. Potassium Chloride. C.
Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate. Explanation: Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate is used
to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium for potassium in the gut to facilitate
excretion.
12. A nurse is educating a client about the use of a walker. Which instruction is correct?
A. Move the walker and the affected leg forward simultaneously. B. Adjust the walker
height to the level of the client's shoulders. C. The nurse should stand in front of the
client during ambulation. D. Keep the walker close to the body for balance. A.
Move the walker and the affected leg forward simultaneously. Explanation: When
using a walker, the client should move the walker and the affected limb forward at
the same time to maintain a stable base of support.
13. A nurse is performing a primary survey on a trauma client. Which of the following is
the priority assessment? A. Disability (neurologic status). B. Circulation (pulses and
bleeding). C. Airway (with cervical spine protection). D. Exposure (temperature
control). C. Airway (with cervical spine protection). Explanation: According to
, the ABCDE assessment priority, airway and cervical spine stabilization are always the
first priority in trauma management.
14. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. The client begins to
develop chills and low back pain. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Slow the
infusion rate. B. Stop the infusion. C. Notify the laboratory. D. Administer
diphenhydramine. B. Stop the infusion. Explanation: These symptoms suggest
an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction; the transfusion must be stopped
immediately to prevent further harm.
15. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of COPD. Which finding should the nurse
expect? A. Clubbing of the fingers. B. Barrel chest. C. Rapid, shallow breathing. D. All
of the above. D. All of the above. Explanation: COPD causes chronic hypoxia,
leading to clubbing, structural changes like a barrel chest, and compensatory
respiratory patterns.
16. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new colostomy. Which
instruction is most important? A. Change the pouching system every day. B. Empty
the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full. C. Avoid all physical activity for six
weeks. D. Apply lotion to the peristomal skin to prevent dryness. B. Empty the
pouch when it is one-third to one-half full. Explanation: Emptying the pouch
before it becomes too heavy prevents leakage and skin irritation around the stoma.
17. A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes and is vomiting. Which is the
priority concern? A. Risk for hyperglycemia. B. Risk for dehydration and electrolyte
imbalance. C. Risk for hunger. D. Risk for weight loss. B. Risk for dehydration and
electrolyte imbalance. Explanation: Vomiting in a diabetic client can lead to rapid
dehydration and metabolic disturbances, which require immediate nursing
intervention.
18. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with TB. Which room
assignment is correct? A. Private room with standard precautions. B. Private room
with airborne precautions. C. Semi-private room with droplet precautions. D. Private
room with contact precautions. B. Private room with airborne precautions.
Explanation: TB is an airborne disease that requires a negative-pressure private room
and specific respiratory protection for staff.
19. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about diet. Which statement
indicates the client understands the DASH diet? A. I will increase my intake of canned
soups. B. I will eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy. C. I will use salt
substitutes for all my cooking. D. I will limit my protein intake to 10 grams per day.
B. I will eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy. Explanation: The DASH
DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
*Core Domains*
*- Medical-Surgical Nursing*
*- Pediatric Nursing*
*- Maternal-Newborn Nursing*
*- Mental Health Nursing*
*- Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies*
*- Nursing Leadership and Management*
*- Community Health Nursing*
*- Nutrition and Diet Therapy*
*Introduction*
*This examination is designed to assess the comprehensive clinical
knowledge, critical thinking, and decision-making skills required for entry-level professional
nursing practice. The content reflects the scope of practice across diverse healthcare
settings, emphasizing patient safety, evidence-based interventions, and ethical nursing
standards. Comprising one hundred multiple-choice questions in this section, the exam
utilizes scenario-based formats to challenge the candidate's ability to prioritize care,
interpret clinical data, and implement appropriate nursing actions. Success on this
assessment demonstrates mastery of foundational nursing theory and the practical
application of clinical judgment necessary to provide safe, effective, and high-quality patient-
centered care in real-world clinical environments.*
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first? A. Insert a padded tongue blade into
the client’s mouth. B. Restrain the client’s limbs to prevent injury. C. Turn the client to
a side-lying position. D. Suction the client’s oropharynx. C. Turn the client to a
side-lying position. Explanation: Ensuring a patent airway is the priority. Turning
the client to the side prevents aspiration of secretions and keeps the tongue from
obstructing the airway.
2. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure who reports increased shortness of
breath. Which assessment finding indicates a potential exacerbation? A. Crackles in
, the lung bases. B. Distended neck veins. C. Dependent edema in the ankles. D.
Increased appetite. A. Crackles in the lung bases. Explanation: Crackles are a
hallmark sign of fluid volume overload in the lungs (pulmonary edema), which occurs
when the left ventricle fails to pump effectively, leading to backflow.
3. A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of insulin. Which statement by
the client indicates an understanding of the teaching? A. I will shake the insulin vial
vigorously before drawing up the dose. B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent
lipohypertrophy. C. I will inject the insulin into the same site every morning. D. I will
discard the vial after the first use. B. I will rotate injection sites to prevent
lipohypertrophy. Explanation: Rotating injection sites is essential to prevent
tissue damage and ensure consistent insulin absorption.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous
bubbling in the water seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take? A. Increase
the wall suction. B. Check the system for an air leak. C. Clamp the chest tube
immediately. D. Document the finding as expected. B. Check the system for an air
leak. Explanation: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates a
leak in the system, which must be identified and corrected immediately to maintain
proper thoracic pressure.
5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has anorexia nervosa. Which intervention
should be included in the plan? A. Allow the client to choose meal times. B.
Encourage the client to exercise to increase appetite. C. Set specific, small, and
achievable weight gain goals. D. Focus the conversation on food and caloric intake
during meals. C. Set specific, small, and achievable weight gain goals.
Explanation: Establishing clear, realistic weight gain goals helps monitor progress and
provides a sense of control for the client within a structured environment.
6. A nurse is reviewing lab results for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding
should be reported to the provider immediately? A. Hemoglobin 12 g/dL. B. Platelets
45,000/mm3. C. White blood cell count 6,000/mm3. D. Potassium 4.0 mEq/L. B.
Platelets 45,000/mm3. Explanation: Thrombocytopenia (low platelets) puts the
client at a high risk for bleeding, requiring immediate provider notification and
implementation of bleeding precautions.
7. A nurse is assessing a client who has a prescription for lithium. Which finding should
the nurse prioritize? A. Fine hand tremors. B. Increased thirst. C. Confusion and
coarse tremors. D. Mild nausea. C. Confusion and coarse tremors.
Explanation: These are signs of lithium toxicity, which is a medical emergency
requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
,8. A nurse is caring for a client who has just undergone a total hip arthroplasty. Which
positioning is correct? A. Keep the hip in adduction. B. Use an abduction pillow
between the legs. C. Flex the hip to 110 degrees. D. Ensure the client sleeps on the
operative side. B. Use an abduction pillow between the legs. Explanation:
Maintaining abduction prevents dislocation of the new hip prosthesis during the
postoperative period.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that is contraindicated for a client.
Which action is the priority? A. Administer the medication and monitor for adverse
effects. B. Contact the provider to clarify the prescription. C. Notify the pharmacy to
check for errors. D. Document the contraindication in the chart. B. Contact the
provider to clarify the prescription. Explanation: Patient safety is the priority; the
nurse must clarify any questionable or contraindicated orders with the prescribing
provider before administration.
10. A nurse is assessing a newborn and notes a bluish discoloration of the hands and
feet. Which action should the nurse take? A. Notify the pediatrician immediately. B.
Administer oxygen via nasal cannula. C. Document this as acrocyanosis. D. Place the
newborn under a radiant warmer. C. Document this as acrocyanosis.
Explanation: Acrocyanosis is a normal finding in newborns during the first 24 to 48
hours of life due to peripheral vasoconstriction.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which
medication should the nurse anticipate administering? A. Furosemide. B.
Spironolactone. C. Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate. D. Potassium Chloride. C.
Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate. Explanation: Sodium Polystyrene Sulfonate is used
to treat hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium for potassium in the gut to facilitate
excretion.
12. A nurse is educating a client about the use of a walker. Which instruction is correct?
A. Move the walker and the affected leg forward simultaneously. B. Adjust the walker
height to the level of the client's shoulders. C. The nurse should stand in front of the
client during ambulation. D. Keep the walker close to the body for balance. A.
Move the walker and the affected leg forward simultaneously. Explanation: When
using a walker, the client should move the walker and the affected limb forward at
the same time to maintain a stable base of support.
13. A nurse is performing a primary survey on a trauma client. Which of the following is
the priority assessment? A. Disability (neurologic status). B. Circulation (pulses and
bleeding). C. Airway (with cervical spine protection). D. Exposure (temperature
control). C. Airway (with cervical spine protection). Explanation: According to
, the ABCDE assessment priority, airway and cervical spine stabilization are always the
first priority in trauma management.
14. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. The client begins to
develop chills and low back pain. What is the nurse's priority action? A. Slow the
infusion rate. B. Stop the infusion. C. Notify the laboratory. D. Administer
diphenhydramine. B. Stop the infusion. Explanation: These symptoms suggest
an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction; the transfusion must be stopped
immediately to prevent further harm.
15. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of COPD. Which finding should the nurse
expect? A. Clubbing of the fingers. B. Barrel chest. C. Rapid, shallow breathing. D. All
of the above. D. All of the above. Explanation: COPD causes chronic hypoxia,
leading to clubbing, structural changes like a barrel chest, and compensatory
respiratory patterns.
16. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new colostomy. Which
instruction is most important? A. Change the pouching system every day. B. Empty
the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full. C. Avoid all physical activity for six
weeks. D. Apply lotion to the peristomal skin to prevent dryness. B. Empty the
pouch when it is one-third to one-half full. Explanation: Emptying the pouch
before it becomes too heavy prevents leakage and skin irritation around the stoma.
17. A nurse is caring for a client who has type 1 diabetes and is vomiting. Which is the
priority concern? A. Risk for hyperglycemia. B. Risk for dehydration and electrolyte
imbalance. C. Risk for hunger. D. Risk for weight loss. B. Risk for dehydration and
electrolyte imbalance. Explanation: Vomiting in a diabetic client can lead to rapid
dehydration and metabolic disturbances, which require immediate nursing
intervention.
18. A nurse is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with TB. Which room
assignment is correct? A. Private room with standard precautions. B. Private room
with airborne precautions. C. Semi-private room with droplet precautions. D. Private
room with contact precautions. B. Private room with airborne precautions.
Explanation: TB is an airborne disease that requires a negative-pressure private room
and specific respiratory protection for staff.
19. A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about diet. Which statement
indicates the client understands the DASH diet? A. I will increase my intake of canned
soups. B. I will eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy. C. I will use salt
substitutes for all my cooking. D. I will limit my protein intake to 10 grams per day.
B. I will eat more fruits, vegetables, and low-fat dairy. Explanation: The DASH
