NR601 / NR-601 Midterm Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary Care of
the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official
Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NR601 / NR-601 Midterm Exam
(Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary
Care of the Maturing and Aged
Family | Questions and Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified
Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027
-- 2026/2027 Official Exam
NR601 / NR-601
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Health Promotion & Disease Prevention Neurological & Cognitive Disorders
Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Disorders Geriatric Syndromes & Pharmacology
Endocrine, Metabolic & Musculoskeletal
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Health Promotion and Disease Prevention in Older Adults | Q1-Q15 | NR601 / NR-601
Midterm Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions
and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027
Official
SECTION Exam 2026/2027
2 | Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Disorders in Aging | Q16-Q30 | NR601 / NR-601 Midterm
Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and
Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official
Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 72-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic for an annual wellness visit. She has no
personal or family history of breast cancer, colon cancer, or lung cancer. She quit smoking 10 years
ago after a 20-pack-year history. The nurse practitioner is reviewing age-appropriate cancer
screening recommendations with her. Based on current USPSTF guidelines, the nurse practitioner
should advise this patient that which of the following screening interventions is recommended at her
age?
A. Biennial screening mammography should continue through at least age 74, as the benefit of
detecting breast cancer outweighs the harms in women up to this age.
B. Annual low-dose CT of the chest is indicated given her prior smoking history of 20 pack-years,
regardless of years since cessation.
C. Screening colonoscopy should be discontinued, as the USPSTF recommends stopping colorectal
cancer screening at age 70 for all average-risk adults.
D. A one-time colonoscopy at age 75 is sufficient, since the USPSTF recommends a single screening
colonoscopy for adults between ages 70 and 80.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The USPSTF recommends biennial screening mammography for women aged 50 to 74 years, making this
patient a candidate for continued breast cancer screening. Low-dose CT for lung cancer screening requires at
least a 20-pack-year history and current smoking or cessation within the past 15 years; since she quit 10 years
ago, she still qualifies, but the key distinction is that mammography is definitively recommended while lung
cancer screening is individualized. Colorectal cancer screening is recommended through age 75, not stopped at
70, making options C and D incorrect.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the clinic for a
routine checkup. His immunization record shows that his last tetanus booster was at age 45, he has
never received the pneumococcal vaccine, and he had influenza vaccine three years ago. The nurse
practitioner plans to update his immunizations according to CDC recommendations for adults aged
65 and older, keeping in mind he will turn 65 in four months. What is the most appropriate
immunization plan for this patient at today's visit?
A. Administer Tdap today, defer pneumococcal vaccines until he turns 65, and give the high-dose
influenza vaccine now since influenza season is approaching.
B. Administer Tdap and PCV15 today, schedule the PPSV23 in one year, and give the standard-dose
influenza vaccine since he is not yet 65.
date 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official Exam | 2026/2
, C. Defer Tdap until age 65, give PCV20 today as a single dose to cover all pneumococcal serotypes,
and recommend high-dose influenza vaccine this season.
D. Administer Tdap and PCV13 today, plan PCV20 at age 65, and give the high-dose influenza
vaccine now regardless of age.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Tdap should be given once and then Td or Tdap boosters every 10 years; since his last tetanus booster was
over 10 years ago, Tdap is indicated today. For pneumococcal vaccination, shared clinical decision-making is
recommended for adults aged 19-64 with chronic conditions like diabetes, making PCV15 now followed by
PPSV23 at least one year later an appropriate approach. Option A incorrectly defers pneumococcal vaccination
despite his diabetes being an indication. Option C defers Tdap unnecessarily and gives PCV20 which is primarily
recommended at age 65. Option D inappropriately schedules PCV20 after PCV13, which is not the
recommended sequence.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
An 81-year-old woman is brought to the primary care office by her daughter, who reports that her
mother has been progressively less able to manage her household tasks over the past six months.
The patient lives alone and has mild osteoarthritis. On examination, she can feed herself, dress with
minimal assistance, and use the toilet independently. However, her daughter notes she has stopped
cooking meals, frequently forgets to take her medications, and can no longer manage her finances.
The nurse practitioner is performing a geriatric functional assessment. How should the nurse
practitioner best characterize this patient's functional decline?
A. The patient demonstrates significant impairment in basic activities of daily living, suggesting a need
for skilled nursing facility placement.
B. The patient shows mild difficulty with both basic and instrumental activities of daily living, indicating
early-stage dementia progression.
C. The patient has intact basic activities of daily living but has declined in instrumental activities of
daily living, warranting support services evaluation.
D. The patient's functional limitations are isolated to mobility-related tasks and do not suggest a
broader need for intervention at this time.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Activities of daily living (ADLs) include basic self-care tasks such as feeding, dressing, toileting, transferring,
continence, and bathing -- all of which this patient performs independently. Instrumental activities of daily living
(IADLs) include managing finances, meal preparation, medication management, housekeeping, and shopping --
areas where she has declined. This pattern of preserved ADLs with impaired IADLs is common in early cognitive
decline and warrants referral for home health services or caregiver support. Option A is incorrect because her
ADLs remain intact. Option B incorrectly states her ADLs are impaired. Option D underestimates the significance
of IADL decline.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
date 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official Exam | 2026/2
, A 76-year-old man with osteoarthritis and benign prostatic hyperplasia is seen for a routine follow-up.
His wife mentions that he stumbled twice last month in the kitchen and once on the front porch step.
He takes lisinopril, oxybutynin, and meloxicam daily. His vital signs are stable, and his physical
examination is unremarkable except for mild gait instability. The nurse practitioner decides to perform
a Timed Up and Go (TUG) test, and the patient completes it in 16 seconds. What is the most
appropriate next step in managing this patient's fall risk?
A. Reassure the patient that a TUG time of 16 seconds is within normal limits and no further fall
prevention measures are needed at this time.
B. Initiate physical therapy referral for gait and balance training and review his medications for
fall-risk-increasing drugs.
C. Order a brain MRI to evaluate for cerebrovascular disease as the underlying cause of his gait
instability and recent falls.
D. Discontinue oxybutynin immediately, prescribe a bedtime dose of donepezil, and schedule a
follow-up in six months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A Timed Up and Go time of 16 seconds exceeds the 12-second cutoff that indicates elevated fall risk, supporting
the need for targeted fall prevention interventions. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication on the Beers
Criteria associated with fall risk due to sedation, blurred vision, and urinary retention, and lisinopril can cause
orthostatic hypotension. A comprehensive approach includes medication review, gait and balance training
through physical therapy, and home safety evaluation. Option A is incorrect because 16 seconds is abnormal.
Option C is premature without focal neurological findings. Option D inappropriately prescribes donepezil without
a diagnosis of dementia and discontinues oxybutynin without an alternative.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 79-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her annual wellness examination. Her daughter
accompanies her and reports that the patient has lost approximately 8 pounds over the past three
months without trying. The patient states she often does not feel hungry and eats one small meal per
day. She lives alone and has difficulty standing at the stove long enough to cook. On examination,
her BMI is 19.2 kg/m², and her calf circumference is 28 cm. The nurse practitioner decides to
administer the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA). A score below which threshold would indicate that
this patient is malnourished and requires immediate nutritional intervention?
A. A score below 17 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and this patient's
history of unintentional weight loss exceeding 5% in three months further supports the need for urgent
nutritional support.
B. A score below 24 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and the patient's low
BMI alone is sufficient to diagnose protein-energy malnutrition.
C. A score below 11 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and oral nutritional
supplements should be initiated regardless of the MNA score given the BMI.
D. A score below 21 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and a referral to a
gastroenterologist for endoscopy is the first-line intervention for unexplained weight loss.
Correct Answer: A
date 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official Exam | 2026/2
the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100%
Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official
Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
NR601 / NR-601 Midterm Exam
(Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary
Care of the Maturing and Aged
Family | Questions and Answers |
Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified
Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027
-- 2026/2027 Official Exam
NR601 / NR-601
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
Health Promotion & Disease Prevention Neurological & Cognitive Disorders
Cardiovascular & Pulmonary Disorders Geriatric Syndromes & Pharmacology
Endocrine, Metabolic & Musculoskeletal
COVER PAGE - 1
, SECTION 1 | Health Promotion and Disease Prevention in Older Adults | Q1-Q15 | NR601 / NR-601
Midterm Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions
and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027
Official
SECTION Exam 2026/2027
2 | Cardiovascular and Pulmonary Disorders in Aging | Q16-Q30 | NR601 / NR-601 Midterm
Exam (Latest Update 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and
Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official
Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 72-year-old woman presents to the primary care clinic for an annual wellness visit. She has no
personal or family history of breast cancer, colon cancer, or lung cancer. She quit smoking 10 years
ago after a 20-pack-year history. The nurse practitioner is reviewing age-appropriate cancer
screening recommendations with her. Based on current USPSTF guidelines, the nurse practitioner
should advise this patient that which of the following screening interventions is recommended at her
age?
A. Biennial screening mammography should continue through at least age 74, as the benefit of
detecting breast cancer outweighs the harms in women up to this age.
B. Annual low-dose CT of the chest is indicated given her prior smoking history of 20 pack-years,
regardless of years since cessation.
C. Screening colonoscopy should be discontinued, as the USPSTF recommends stopping colorectal
cancer screening at age 70 for all average-risk adults.
D. A one-time colonoscopy at age 75 is sufficient, since the USPSTF recommends a single screening
colonoscopy for adults between ages 70 and 80.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale:
The USPSTF recommends biennial screening mammography for women aged 50 to 74 years, making this
patient a candidate for continued breast cancer screening. Low-dose CT for lung cancer screening requires at
least a 20-pack-year history and current smoking or cessation within the past 15 years; since she quit 10 years
ago, she still qualifies, but the key distinction is that mammography is definitively recommended while lung
cancer screening is individualized. Colorectal cancer screening is recommended through age 75, not stopped at
70, making options C and D incorrect.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
A 68-year-old man with a history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus comes to the clinic for a
routine checkup. His immunization record shows that his last tetanus booster was at age 45, he has
never received the pneumococcal vaccine, and he had influenza vaccine three years ago. The nurse
practitioner plans to update his immunizations according to CDC recommendations for adults aged
65 and older, keeping in mind he will turn 65 in four months. What is the most appropriate
immunization plan for this patient at today's visit?
A. Administer Tdap today, defer pneumococcal vaccines until he turns 65, and give the high-dose
influenza vaccine now since influenza season is approaching.
B. Administer Tdap and PCV15 today, schedule the PPSV23 in one year, and give the standard-dose
influenza vaccine since he is not yet 65.
date 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official Exam | 2026/2
, C. Defer Tdap until age 65, give PCV20 today as a single dose to cover all pneumococcal serotypes,
and recommend high-dose influenza vaccine this season.
D. Administer Tdap and PCV13 today, plan PCV20 at age 65, and give the high-dose influenza
vaccine now regardless of age.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Tdap should be given once and then Td or Tdap boosters every 10 years; since his last tetanus booster was
over 10 years ago, Tdap is indicated today. For pneumococcal vaccination, shared clinical decision-making is
recommended for adults aged 19-64 with chronic conditions like diabetes, making PCV15 now followed by
PPSV23 at least one year later an appropriate approach. Option A incorrectly defers pneumococcal vaccination
despite his diabetes being an indication. Option C defers Tdap unnecessarily and gives PCV20 which is primarily
recommended at age 65. Option D inappropriately schedules PCV20 after PCV13, which is not the
recommended sequence.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
An 81-year-old woman is brought to the primary care office by her daughter, who reports that her
mother has been progressively less able to manage her household tasks over the past six months.
The patient lives alone and has mild osteoarthritis. On examination, she can feed herself, dress with
minimal assistance, and use the toilet independently. However, her daughter notes she has stopped
cooking meals, frequently forgets to take her medications, and can no longer manage her finances.
The nurse practitioner is performing a geriatric functional assessment. How should the nurse
practitioner best characterize this patient's functional decline?
A. The patient demonstrates significant impairment in basic activities of daily living, suggesting a need
for skilled nursing facility placement.
B. The patient shows mild difficulty with both basic and instrumental activities of daily living, indicating
early-stage dementia progression.
C. The patient has intact basic activities of daily living but has declined in instrumental activities of
daily living, warranting support services evaluation.
D. The patient's functional limitations are isolated to mobility-related tasks and do not suggest a
broader need for intervention at this time.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale:
Activities of daily living (ADLs) include basic self-care tasks such as feeding, dressing, toileting, transferring,
continence, and bathing -- all of which this patient performs independently. Instrumental activities of daily living
(IADLs) include managing finances, meal preparation, medication management, housekeeping, and shopping --
areas where she has declined. This pattern of preserved ADLs with impaired IADLs is common in early cognitive
decline and warrants referral for home health services or caregiver support. Option A is incorrect because her
ADLs remain intact. Option B incorrectly states her ADLs are impaired. Option D underestimates the significance
of IADL decline.
Q4 Question 4 of 75
date 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official Exam | 2026/2
, A 76-year-old man with osteoarthritis and benign prostatic hyperplasia is seen for a routine follow-up.
His wife mentions that he stumbled twice last month in the kitchen and once on the front porch step.
He takes lisinopril, oxybutynin, and meloxicam daily. His vital signs are stable, and his physical
examination is unremarkable except for mild gait instability. The nurse practitioner decides to perform
a Timed Up and Go (TUG) test, and the patient completes it in 16 seconds. What is the most
appropriate next step in managing this patient's fall risk?
A. Reassure the patient that a TUG time of 16 seconds is within normal limits and no further fall
prevention measures are needed at this time.
B. Initiate physical therapy referral for gait and balance training and review his medications for
fall-risk-increasing drugs.
C. Order a brain MRI to evaluate for cerebrovascular disease as the underlying cause of his gait
instability and recent falls.
D. Discontinue oxybutynin immediately, prescribe a bedtime dose of donepezil, and schedule a
follow-up in six months.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A Timed Up and Go time of 16 seconds exceeds the 12-second cutoff that indicates elevated fall risk, supporting
the need for targeted fall prevention interventions. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic medication on the Beers
Criteria associated with fall risk due to sedation, blurred vision, and urinary retention, and lisinopril can cause
orthostatic hypotension. A comprehensive approach includes medication review, gait and balance training
through physical therapy, and home safety evaluation. Option A is incorrect because 16 seconds is abnormal.
Option C is premature without focal neurological findings. Option D inappropriately prescribes donepezil without
a diagnosis of dementia and discontinues oxybutynin without an alternative.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 79-year-old woman presents to the clinic for her annual wellness examination. Her daughter
accompanies her and reports that the patient has lost approximately 8 pounds over the past three
months without trying. The patient states she often does not feel hungry and eats one small meal per
day. She lives alone and has difficulty standing at the stove long enough to cook. On examination,
her BMI is 19.2 kg/m², and her calf circumference is 28 cm. The nurse practitioner decides to
administer the Mini Nutritional Assessment (MNA). A score below which threshold would indicate that
this patient is malnourished and requires immediate nutritional intervention?
A. A score below 17 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and this patient's
history of unintentional weight loss exceeding 5% in three months further supports the need for urgent
nutritional support.
B. A score below 24 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and the patient's low
BMI alone is sufficient to diagnose protein-energy malnutrition.
C. A score below 11 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and oral nutritional
supplements should be initiated regardless of the MNA score given the BMI.
D. A score below 21 on the Mini Nutritional Assessment indicates malnutrition, and a referral to a
gastroenterologist for endoscopy is the first-line intervention for unexplained weight loss.
Correct Answer: A
date 2026/2027): Primary Care of the Maturing and Aged Family | Questions and Answers | Grade A | 100% Correct | Verified Solutions - Chamberlain 2026/2027 -- 2026/2027 Official Exam | 2026/2
