SMQT EXAM ACTUAL 200 QUESTIONS Comprehensive
Practice Exam with Correct Answers and Detailed
Explanations
SECTION 1: IMMEDIATE JEOPARDY (IJ) & APPENDIX Q (Questions 1-25)
Q1. Appendix Q of the State Operations Manual (SOM) contains what information?
A) Infection control guidelines
B) Determining Immediate Jeopardy
C) Life Safety Code requirements
D) Resident assessment instructions
Correct Answer: B. Determining Immediate Jeopardy
Appendix Q is the CMS guidance for surveyors on identifying, documenting, and abating
Immediate Jeopardy situations. It provides the framework for determining when a provider's
noncompliance has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to
a resident .
Q2. What are the three components of Immediate Jeopardy (IJ)?
A) Harm, Intent, Causation
B) Harm, Immediacy, Culpability
C) Risk, Frequency, Severity
D) Act, Omission, Outcome
Correct Answer: B. Harm, Immediacy, Culpability
,The three required components for determining Immediate Jeopardy are: (1) Harm — actual
outcome of harm OR potential for harm; (2) Immediacy — harm or potential harm likely to
occur in the very near future; and (3) Culpability — the facility's failure to act .
Q3. Which scenario would NOT meet the threshold for IJ?
A) A facility knowingly allows a resident with known elopement risk to wander outside
unsupervised
B) A single medication error that was caught and corrected before administration
C) Staff striking a resident
D) Non-consensual sexual interaction with a resident
Correct Answer: B. A single medication error that was caught and corrected before
administration
A medication error that is caught and corrected before administration does not meet the IJ
threshold because there was no actual or potential harm to the resident. Immediate
Jeopardy requires serious harm or the high potential for serious harm .
Q4. What is the maximum time frame allowed for a facility to submit an acceptable
plan of action to abate an Immediate Jeopardy situation?
A) 7 calendar days
B) 15 calendar days
C) 23 calendar days
D) 30 calendar days
Correct Answer: C. 23 calendar days
,CMS regulations provide the facility 23 calendar days from the date of the IJ finding to
submit an acceptable plan of action that demonstrates the IJ has been removed. If the
facility fails to submit an acceptable plan, termination may proceed .
Q5. Which of the following is a trigger for failure to protect from abuse?
A) Proper screening of staff
B) Staff striking or roughly handling an individual
C) Adequate supervision of residents
D) Thorough investigation of incidents
Correct Answer: B. Staff striking or roughly handling an individual
Staff striking or roughly handling an individual is a clear trigger for failure to protect from
abuse. Other triggers include serious injuries such as head trauma or fractures, non-
consensual sexual interactions, unexplained serious injuries, staff yelling or calling
individuals derogatory names, and bruises around the breast or genital area .
Q6. A facility fails to report an incident of suspected abuse to the state agency within
the required timeframe. This failure could lead to citation under:
A) F609 – Reporting of alleged violations
B) F600 – Abuse and neglect
C) F602 – Involuntary seclusion
D) F690 – Urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: A. F609 – Reporting of alleged violations
, F609 requires that a facility must immediately notify the State Survey Agency and other
officials of any alleged violation involving abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment.
Failure to report within 24 hours is a direct violation of F609 .
Q7. What is the definition of abuse according to CMS guidance?
A) The unintentional failure to provide necessary care
B) The willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment with
resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish
C) The failure to follow physician orders
D) The lack of adequate staffing
Correct Answer: B. The willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement,
intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish
Abuse is defined as the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish. This includes actions by
staff, family, visitors, and volunteers .
Q8. What is the definition of neglect according to CMS guidance?
A) The willful infliction of injury
B) Failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical harm, mental anguish,
or mental illness
C) Unreasonable confinement of a resident
D) Verbal intimidation of a resident
Correct Answer: B. Failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid
physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness
Practice Exam with Correct Answers and Detailed
Explanations
SECTION 1: IMMEDIATE JEOPARDY (IJ) & APPENDIX Q (Questions 1-25)
Q1. Appendix Q of the State Operations Manual (SOM) contains what information?
A) Infection control guidelines
B) Determining Immediate Jeopardy
C) Life Safety Code requirements
D) Resident assessment instructions
Correct Answer: B. Determining Immediate Jeopardy
Appendix Q is the CMS guidance for surveyors on identifying, documenting, and abating
Immediate Jeopardy situations. It provides the framework for determining when a provider's
noncompliance has caused or is likely to cause serious injury, harm, impairment, or death to
a resident .
Q2. What are the three components of Immediate Jeopardy (IJ)?
A) Harm, Intent, Causation
B) Harm, Immediacy, Culpability
C) Risk, Frequency, Severity
D) Act, Omission, Outcome
Correct Answer: B. Harm, Immediacy, Culpability
,The three required components for determining Immediate Jeopardy are: (1) Harm — actual
outcome of harm OR potential for harm; (2) Immediacy — harm or potential harm likely to
occur in the very near future; and (3) Culpability — the facility's failure to act .
Q3. Which scenario would NOT meet the threshold for IJ?
A) A facility knowingly allows a resident with known elopement risk to wander outside
unsupervised
B) A single medication error that was caught and corrected before administration
C) Staff striking a resident
D) Non-consensual sexual interaction with a resident
Correct Answer: B. A single medication error that was caught and corrected before
administration
A medication error that is caught and corrected before administration does not meet the IJ
threshold because there was no actual or potential harm to the resident. Immediate
Jeopardy requires serious harm or the high potential for serious harm .
Q4. What is the maximum time frame allowed for a facility to submit an acceptable
plan of action to abate an Immediate Jeopardy situation?
A) 7 calendar days
B) 15 calendar days
C) 23 calendar days
D) 30 calendar days
Correct Answer: C. 23 calendar days
,CMS regulations provide the facility 23 calendar days from the date of the IJ finding to
submit an acceptable plan of action that demonstrates the IJ has been removed. If the
facility fails to submit an acceptable plan, termination may proceed .
Q5. Which of the following is a trigger for failure to protect from abuse?
A) Proper screening of staff
B) Staff striking or roughly handling an individual
C) Adequate supervision of residents
D) Thorough investigation of incidents
Correct Answer: B. Staff striking or roughly handling an individual
Staff striking or roughly handling an individual is a clear trigger for failure to protect from
abuse. Other triggers include serious injuries such as head trauma or fractures, non-
consensual sexual interactions, unexplained serious injuries, staff yelling or calling
individuals derogatory names, and bruises around the breast or genital area .
Q6. A facility fails to report an incident of suspected abuse to the state agency within
the required timeframe. This failure could lead to citation under:
A) F609 – Reporting of alleged violations
B) F600 – Abuse and neglect
C) F602 – Involuntary seclusion
D) F690 – Urinary incontinence
Correct Answer: A. F609 – Reporting of alleged violations
, F609 requires that a facility must immediately notify the State Survey Agency and other
officials of any alleged violation involving abuse, neglect, exploitation, or mistreatment.
Failure to report within 24 hours is a direct violation of F609 .
Q7. What is the definition of abuse according to CMS guidance?
A) The unintentional failure to provide necessary care
B) The willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or punishment with
resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish
C) The failure to follow physician orders
D) The lack of adequate staffing
Correct Answer: B. The willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement,
intimidation, or punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish
Abuse is defined as the willful infliction of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish. This includes actions by
staff, family, visitors, and volunteers .
Q8. What is the definition of neglect according to CMS guidance?
A) The willful infliction of injury
B) Failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid physical harm, mental anguish,
or mental illness
C) Unreasonable confinement of a resident
D) Verbal intimidation of a resident
Correct Answer: B. Failure to provide goods and services necessary to avoid
physical harm, mental anguish, or mental illness
