Treatment of Psychopathology: Walden University
Midterm Exam with Correct Answers and
Rationales (Complete Edition 2026)
Question 1
When an unstable patient asks why it is necessary to add medications to his current
regimen, the PMHNP's best response would be:
Answer: "Many psychiatric illnesses involve several dys-functioning neurotransmitter
systems in the brain. Often, a single medication may only affect one or two of the dys-
functioning systems. The addition of another medication can work with the current
medication in stabilizing multiple neurotransmitter systems and help to alleviate your
symptoms." ✔✔
Rationale: Psychiatric disorders often involve complex interactions among multiple
neurotransmitter systems. Monotherapy may not adequately address all dysregulated
pathways, making combination therapy necessary for optimal symptom control.
Question 2
The PMHNP is meeting with a new mother who would like to begin taking medication
again to treat her bipolar depression; she is breastfeeding her 2-month-old daughter.
The PMHNP recognizes that which of the following medications is contraindicated for
this patient?
Answer: Lithium (Lithobid). ✔✔
Rationale: Lithium is excreted in breast milk and can reach significant levels in the
infant, potentially causing toxicity. It is generally contraindicated during breastfeeding
due to risks of hypothermia, cyanosis, and cardiac issues in the neonate.
Question 3
Mr. Gordon is a middle-aged client who was started on antidepressant monotherapy for
depression. After beginning this medication, the PMHNP noticed that this client seemed
to swing into a hypomanic episode. What can the PMHNP infer from this behavior
change?
Answer: This client may have Bipolar III disorder. ✔✔
pg. 1
,Rationale: Antidepressant-induced mania or hypomania is a hallmark of bipolar
spectrum disorders. When a patient with apparent unipolar depression develops
hypomania on antidepressant therapy, it suggests an underlying bipolar disorder
(Bipolar III, also known as substance/medication-induced bipolar disorder).
Question 4
A patient presents with frequent episodes of mania. Which statement describes an
appropriate treatment approach for this patient?
Answer: "The patient could benefit from an anticonvulsant or lithium therapy." ✔✔
Rationale: Manic episodes are effectively treated with mood stabilizers, including
lithium and anticonvulsants such as valproate or carbamazepine.
Question 5
The student inquires about antipsychotic medications. Which response by the PMHNP
describes the factors that contribute to reduced risk of extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)
for patients who take antipsychotics?
Answer: Those that are potent D2 antagonists with 5HT2A antagonism properties. ✔✔
Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics have potent 5HT2A receptor antagonism, which
reduces the risk of EPS by modulating dopamine release in the nigrostriatal pathway.
Question 6
After ordering flumazenil (Romazicon), the PMHNP cautions the staff to monitor for
which possible effect?
Answer: All of the above. ✔✔
Rationale: Flumazenil, a benzodiazepine antagonist, can cause withdrawal seizures,
agitation, and resedation after its effects wear off. All potential side effects should be
monitored.
Question 7
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who is taking antipsychotics heard the psychiatrist
tell the patient that the patient would be placed on a different antipsychotic agent called
an atypical antipsychotic. What neurotransmitters will this new medication work on?
Answer: Dopamine and serotonin. ✔✔
pg. 2
, Rationale: Atypical antipsychotics work on both dopamine (D2) and serotonin
(5HT2A) receptors, which distinguishes them from first-generation antipsychotics.
Question 8
While genes have potential to modify behavior, behavior can also modify genes. How do
genes impact this process?
Answer: Changes made to proteins lead to changes in behavior. ✔✔
Rationale: Gene expression leads to protein synthesis, which influences neuronal
function and behavior. This is the mechanism through which genetics impact behavior.
Question 9
Mrs. Schwartzman is a 52-year-old client with schizophrenia and no established history
of depression. When meeting with the PMHNP, she presents with apathy and
withdrawn social behavior, and she reports a loss of joy from enjoyable activities since
starting her new medication. What does the PMHNP infer from this encounter with the
client?
Answer: The new medication is blocking D2 receptors in the mesolimbic system. ✔✔
Rationale: Blockade of D2 receptors in the mesolimbic pathway can cause negative
symptoms such as apathy, anhedonia, and social withdrawal.
Question 10
A nursing student is seeking clarification on the use of anticonvulsants to treat
depression and is unclear about most effective outcomes. Which of the following agents
does the PMHNP convey as having uncertain outcomes?
Answer: Gabapentin (Neurontin). ✔✔
Rationale: Gabapentin has limited evidence for treating depression and its efficacy is
uncertain compared to other anticonvulsants like lamotrigine.
Question 11
As it relates to G-protein linked receptors, what does the PMHNP understand about
medications that are used in practice?
Answer: Most medications that act on G-protein linked receptors have antagonistic
traits. ✔✔
pg. 3