RN VATI COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR PRACTICE
EXAM WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS ANSWER KEY 2026-2027 Q&A GUARANTEED A+
SUCCESS!!!
QUESTION 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which assessment
finding indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
B. Decreased ankle edema and urine output of 200 mL/hr
C. Increased blood pressure from 110/70 to 140/90 mmHg
D. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart
failure. Effectiveness is demonstrated by decreased peripheral edema and
increased urine output. Weight gain (A) indicates fluid retention. Elevated BP (C) is
not the therapeutic goal. Hypokalemia (D) is an adverse effect, not an indicator of
effectiveness.
QUESTION 2
,A client returns to the unit after cardiac catheterization via the right femoral
artery. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
A. Assess pedal pulses every 15 minutes
B. Maintain the client on bed rest with the leg extended for 4-6 hours
C. Encourage the client to ambulate within 1 hour
D. Apply a heating pad to the insertion site
ANSWER: B
Rationale: After femoral artery catheterization, bed rest with the affected leg
extended is required for 4-6 hours to prevent bleeding and hematoma formation.
While assessing pedal pulses (A) is important, it is secondary to preventing
hemorrhage. Early ambulation (C) increases bleeding risk. Heat (D) increases the
risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.
QUESTION 3
Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. Client with atrial fibrillation, heart rate 110, complaining of fatigue
B. Client 2 hours post-MI with chest pain rated 8/10
C. Client with new-onset heart failure, oxygen saturation 94% on 2L NC
D. Client with hypertension, BP 160/92, asymptomatic
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Chest pain in a client who has had a recent MI is the priority finding
and may indicate reinfarction or complications. This client is unstable and requires
immediate assessment and intervention. The other clients are stable and can be
assessed after the client with chest pain.
QUESTION 4
A client with unstable angina is started on a heparin infusion. Which laboratory
value indicates therapeutic anticoagulation?
,A. PT 12 seconds
B. aPTT 1.5-2.5 times the control
C. INR 2.0-3.0
D. Platelet count 80,000/mm³
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT), with a therapeutic range of 1.5 to 2.5 times the
control value. PT/INR (A, C) are used to monitor warfarin therapy. A platelet count
of 80,000 (D) is low and may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a
serious complication.
QUESTION 5
Which assessment finding in a client with acute pericarditis requires the MOST
immediate action?
A. Friction rub on auscultation
B. Pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg
C. ST-segment elevation on ECG
D. Sharp chest pain with inspiration
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg indicates cardiac tamponade, a life-
threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial
sac and compresses the heart. This requires emergency pericardiocentesis. The
other findings are expected in pericarditis but are not immediately life-
threatening.
QUESTION 6
A client with dilated cardiomyopathy is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which client
statement indicates understanding of the medication's purpose?
, A. "This medication will increase my heart rate."
B. "This medication helps reduce the workload on my heart."
C. "This medication will make me retain fluid."
D. "I should take this medication only when I have chest pain."
ANSWER: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload by causing vasodilation, thereby
decreasing cardiac workload. They do not increase heart rate (A), promote fluid
loss, not retention (C), and are taken daily to manage a chronic condition, not PRN
(D).
QUESTION 7
The nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual to a client
with chest pain. Which action is correct?
A. Have the client sit or lie down before administration
B. Instruct the client to swallow the tablet immediately
C. Assess blood pressure after administering the medication
D. Give the medication regardless of blood pressure
ANSWER: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation and can cause significant
hypotension. The client should sit or lie down before administration to prevent falls
from orthostatic hypotension. The tablet should be dissolved under the tongue (B).
Blood pressure should be assessed BEFORE and after administration (C). The
medication should not be given if SBP is <90 mmHg (D).
QUESTION 8
A client with aortic stenosis reports dizziness when getting out of bed. Which
nursing intervention is MOST appropriate?
EXAM WITH 100 QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH DETAILED RATIONALES
PLUS ANSWER KEY 2026-2027 Q&A GUARANTEED A+
SUCCESS!!!
QUESTION 1
A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV. Which assessment
finding indicates the medication is effective?
A. Weight gain of 2 kg in 24 hours
B. Decreased ankle edema and urine output of 200 mL/hr
C. Increased blood pressure from 110/70 to 140/90 mmHg
D. Potassium level of 2.8 mEq/L
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that reduces fluid overload in heart
failure. Effectiveness is demonstrated by decreased peripheral edema and
increased urine output. Weight gain (A) indicates fluid retention. Elevated BP (C) is
not the therapeutic goal. Hypokalemia (D) is an adverse effect, not an indicator of
effectiveness.
QUESTION 2
,A client returns to the unit after cardiac catheterization via the right femoral
artery. Which action should the nurse prioritize?
A. Assess pedal pulses every 15 minutes
B. Maintain the client on bed rest with the leg extended for 4-6 hours
C. Encourage the client to ambulate within 1 hour
D. Apply a heating pad to the insertion site
ANSWER: B
Rationale: After femoral artery catheterization, bed rest with the affected leg
extended is required for 4-6 hours to prevent bleeding and hematoma formation.
While assessing pedal pulses (A) is important, it is secondary to preventing
hemorrhage. Early ambulation (C) increases bleeding risk. Heat (D) increases the
risk of bleeding and is contraindicated.
QUESTION 3
Which client should the nurse assess FIRST?
A. Client with atrial fibrillation, heart rate 110, complaining of fatigue
B. Client 2 hours post-MI with chest pain rated 8/10
C. Client with new-onset heart failure, oxygen saturation 94% on 2L NC
D. Client with hypertension, BP 160/92, asymptomatic
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Chest pain in a client who has had a recent MI is the priority finding
and may indicate reinfarction or complications. This client is unstable and requires
immediate assessment and intervention. The other clients are stable and can be
assessed after the client with chest pain.
QUESTION 4
A client with unstable angina is started on a heparin infusion. Which laboratory
value indicates therapeutic anticoagulation?
,A. PT 12 seconds
B. aPTT 1.5-2.5 times the control
C. INR 2.0-3.0
D. Platelet count 80,000/mm³
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Heparin therapy is monitored using the activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT), with a therapeutic range of 1.5 to 2.5 times the
control value. PT/INR (A, C) are used to monitor warfarin therapy. A platelet count
of 80,000 (D) is low and may indicate heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a
serious complication.
QUESTION 5
Which assessment finding in a client with acute pericarditis requires the MOST
immediate action?
A. Friction rub on auscultation
B. Pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg
C. ST-segment elevation on ECG
D. Sharp chest pain with inspiration
ANSWER: B
Rationale: Pulsus paradoxus >10 mmHg indicates cardiac tamponade, a life-
threatening complication of pericarditis where fluid accumulates in the pericardial
sac and compresses the heart. This requires emergency pericardiocentesis. The
other findings are expected in pericarditis but are not immediately life-
threatening.
QUESTION 6
A client with dilated cardiomyopathy is prescribed an ACE inhibitor. Which client
statement indicates understanding of the medication's purpose?
, A. "This medication will increase my heart rate."
B. "This medication helps reduce the workload on my heart."
C. "This medication will make me retain fluid."
D. "I should take this medication only when I have chest pain."
ANSWER: B
Rationale: ACE inhibitors reduce afterload by causing vasodilation, thereby
decreasing cardiac workload. They do not increase heart rate (A), promote fluid
loss, not retention (C), and are taken daily to manage a chronic condition, not PRN
(D).
QUESTION 7
The nurse is preparing to administer nitroglycerin 0.4 mg sublingual to a client
with chest pain. Which action is correct?
A. Have the client sit or lie down before administration
B. Instruct the client to swallow the tablet immediately
C. Assess blood pressure after administering the medication
D. Give the medication regardless of blood pressure
ANSWER: A
Rationale: Nitroglycerin causes vasodilation and can cause significant
hypotension. The client should sit or lie down before administration to prevent falls
from orthostatic hypotension. The tablet should be dissolved under the tongue (B).
Blood pressure should be assessed BEFORE and after administration (C). The
medication should not be given if SBP is <90 mmHg (D).
QUESTION 8
A client with aortic stenosis reports dizziness when getting out of bed. Which
nursing intervention is MOST appropriate?
