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Core Domains
* Medical-Surgical Nursing
* Maternal-Newborn Nursing
* Pediatric Nursing
* Mental Health Nursing
* Pharmacology and Parenteral Therapies
* Nursing Leadership and Management
* Community Health Nursing
* Fundamentals of Nursing
Introduction
*The ATI RN Exit Exam serves as a comprehensive evaluation of a nursing student's
readiness for professional practice and the NCLEX-RN licensure examination. This
assessment rigorously tests the integration of foundational theory, clinical judgment, and
evidence-based practice across diverse health care settings. Through a series of multiple-
choice and complex scenario-based questions, candidates must demonstrate proficiency in
ethical decision-making, patient safety, and regulatory compliance. The exam emphasizes
real-world application, challenging the student to prioritize care effectively and synthesize
nursing knowledge to provide safe, patient-centered interventions that reflect the high
standards expected of a registered nurse in any clinical environment.*
SECTION ONE: QUESTIONS 1–100
1. A nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).
Which finding should the nurse expect? A. Barrel chest B. Decreased anteroposterior
diameter C. Clubbing of the toes D. Bradypnea A. Barrel chest Explanation:
Clients with COPD often develop a barrel chest due to chronic air trapping and
hyperinflation of the lungs.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is in the third trimester of pregnancy. Which of the
following findings is a priority to report to the provider? A. Dependent edema B.
Urinary frequency C. Vaginal bleeding D. Leukorrhea C. Vaginal bleeding
, Explanation: Vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is a sign of potential
complications such as placenta previa or abruptio placentae and requires immediate
medical evaluation.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer medications. Which action should the nurse take
to ensure client safety? A. Ask the client to state their name and room number. B.
Compare the medication label with the MAR at the bedside. C. Pre-pour medications
for all clients to save time. D. Ask the family to confirm the medication name. B.
Compare the medication label with the MAR at the bedside. Explanation:
Verifying the medication against the Medication Administration Record (MAR) at the
bedside is a critical step in the rights of medication administration.
4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an assistive personnel (AP). Which task is appropriate
to delegate? A. Assessing a postoperative client's dressing. B. Calculating intake and
output for a client. C. Teaching a client about dietary restrictions. D. Evaluating the
effectiveness of pain medication. B. Calculating intake and output for a client.
Explanation: APs are qualified to perform routine tasks such as measuring and
recording intake and output, whereas assessment, teaching, and evaluation require
professional nursing judgment.
5. A nurse is providing care to a client diagnosed with major depressive disorder who
states, "I just want to end it all." Which action is the priority? A. Document the
statement in the medical record. B. Contact the client's family for information. C.
Implement one-on-one observation. D. Provide the client with educational
brochures. C. Implement one-on-one observation. Explanation: Safety is the
priority; the nurse must immediately implement safety precautions, such as one-on-
one observation, for a client expressing suicidal ideation.
6. A nurse is caring for a school-age child with asthma. Which assessment finding
indicates an acute exacerbation? A. Respiratory rate of 18/min B. SpO2 of 96% C. Use
of accessory muscles D. Clear lung sounds C. Use of accessory muscles
Explanation: The use of accessory muscles during respiration indicates increased
work of breathing and respiratory distress, which is a sign of an asthma exacerbation.
7. A nurse is planning care for a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty.
Which intervention is appropriate? A. Keep the hip in adduction. B. Use an abductor
pillow when turning the client. C. Encourage the client to sit in a low chair. D. Instruct
the client to bend the hip more than 90 degrees. B. Use an abductor pillow when
turning the client. Explanation: Using an abductor pillow prevents hip adduction,
which could lead to dislocation of the prosthetic joint.
8. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the client
indicates understanding? A. I will increase my intake of dark green leafy vegetables.
, B. I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush. C. I will take aspirin if I develop a headache. D.
I will stop taking the medication if I bruise easily. B. I will use a soft-bristled
toothbrush. Explanation: Warfarin increases bleeding risk, so using a soft-bristled
toothbrush is a necessary precaution to prevent gingival bleeding.
9. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure who reports increased shortness of
breath. Which assessment finding is most concerning? A. Bilateral crackles in the
bases of the lungs B. Weight gain of 1 pound in 1 week C. Heart rate of 80/min D.
Blood pressure of 120/80 mmHg A. Bilateral crackles in the bases of the lungs
Explanation: Bilateral crackles indicate pulmonary edema, a serious complication of
heart failure that requires immediate intervention.
10. A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube. Which action should the nurse
take before administering an enteral feeding? A. Check the pH of the gastric aspirate.
B. Place the client in a supine position. C. Flush the tube with 10 mL of water. D.
Inject air into the tube to check for placement. A. Check the pH of the gastric
aspirate. Explanation: Testing the pH of gastric aspirate is a reliable method to
confirm correct placement of the nasogastric tube before administering feedings.
11. A nurse is planning care for a client with dementia. Which intervention should the
nurse include? A. Use complex sentences when giving instructions. B. Maintain a
consistent daily routine. C. Provide a variety of activities to prevent boredom. D.
Change the room environment frequently to stimulate the client. B. Maintain a
consistent daily routine. Explanation: A consistent daily routine provides security
and reduces anxiety and confusion for clients with dementia.
12. A nurse is assessing a client with a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L. Which EKG change
should the nurse anticipate? A. Prominent U waves B. Flattened T waves C. Tall,
peaked T waves D. Depressed ST segments C. Tall, peaked T waves
Explanation: Hyperkalemia, indicated by a potassium level of 6.2 mEq/L, typically
manifests on an EKG as tall, peaked T waves.
13. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a new colostomy. Which
instruction is priority? A. The stoma should be pale in color. B. Clean the skin around
the stoma with alcohol. C. Empty the pouch when it is one-third to one-half full. D.
Change the pouch system once a month. C. Empty the pouch when it is one-third
to one-half full. Explanation: Emptying the pouch when it is one-third to one-half
full prevents the bag from becoming too heavy and pulling on the skin barrier.
14. A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube. The nurse notes continuous bubbling
in the water seal chamber. Which action should the nurse take? A. Document the
finding as normal. B. Check the tubing for an air leak. C. Increase the suction
pressure. D. Empty the drainage collection chamber. B. Check the tubing for an
, air leak. Explanation: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber usually
indicates an air leak in the system, which requires immediate investigation.
15. A nurse is caring for a client with Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus who is experiencing
hypoglycemia. Which finding should the nurse expect? A. Polydipsia B. Polyuria C.
Diaphoresis D. Fruity breath odor C. Diaphoresis Explanation: Diaphoresis
(excessive sweating) is a classic autonomic nervous system symptom of
hypoglycemia.
16. A nurse is caring for an older adult client. Which finding is a normal age-related
change? A. Increased saliva production B. Decreased gastric motility C. Faster
absorption of medications D. Increased bladder capacity B. Decreased gastric
motility Explanation: Decreased gastric motility is a common physiological
change associated with aging, which can affect digestion and medication absorption.
17. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client. The client develops chills and
back pain. What is the priority action? A. Slow the infusion rate. B. Stop the infusion.
C. Obtain a blood sample for a culture. D. Administer a PRN antipyretic. B. Stop
the infusion. Explanation: Chills and back pain are signs of a transfusion reaction;
the priority is to stop the transfusion immediately to prevent further harm.
18. A nurse is teaching a client about a low-sodium diet. Which food should the nurse
instruct the client to avoid? A. Fresh fruits B. Canned soups C. Plain yogurt D. Brown
rice B. Canned soups Explanation: Canned soups are typically high in sodium
and should be avoided in a low-sodium diet.
19. A nurse is caring for a client who is having a seizure. Which action should the nurse
take? A. Restrain the client to prevent injury. B. Insert a padded tongue blade into the
mouth. C. Turn the client to the side. D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position.
C. Turn the client to the side. Explanation: Placing the client on their side
helps maintain a patent airway and prevents aspiration of secretions during a seizure.
20. A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an infant. Which site
is preferred? A. Dorsogluteal B. Deltoid C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis D.
Vastus lateralis Explanation: The vastus lateralis muscle is the preferred site for
intramuscular injections in infants because it is well-developed and free of major
nerves and blood vessels.
21. A nurse is assessing a client with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). Which finding
should the nurse expect? A. Butterfly rash B. Weight gain C. Bradycardia D. Polyuria
A. Butterfly rash Explanation: A characteristic butterfly-shaped rash across
the cheeks and bridge of the nose is a hallmark clinical manifestation of SLE.