NSG 548 Final Exam V3 | NSG 548 FNP
Role: Children & Families | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NSG548 Final Exam) |
Wilkes University
1. A 15-month-old child is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. Which developmental
milestone is most indicative of normal progression for this age?
A. Walking independently
B. Ability to jump with both feet
C. Using a spoon with full mastery
D. Speaking in four-word sentences
Answer: A
Rationale: By 15 months of age, most children have mastered the ability to walk
independently, which is a key gross motor milestone. Jumping with both feet is typically
expected closer to 2 years of age. Mastery of utensil use and complex sentence structures
are milestones associated with older toddlers and preschool-aged children.
2. During a well-child visit for an 18-month-old, the FNP administers the M-CHAT-R. What is
the primary purpose of this screening tool?
A. To identify signs of autism spectrum disorder
B. To assess for gross motor delays
,C. To screen for iron deficiency anemia
D. To evaluate language development exclusively
Answer: A
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers, Revised (M-CHAT-R) is a
validated screening tool used to identify children at risk for autism spectrum disorder. It is
specifically designed for toddlers between 16 and 30 months of age. Early identification
through this tool allows for prompt referral to specialized services and early intervention
programs.
3. An 8-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. Which diagnosis
is most likely given these clinical findings?
A. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
B. Acute Bronchiolitis
C. Epiglottitis
D. Bacterial Tracheitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Croup, or laryngotracheobronchitis, is characterized by a distinctive barking
cough and inspiratory stridor due to subglottic swelling. Epiglottitis typically presents with
high fever, drooling, and a ‘tripod’ position rather than a barky cough. Proper management
often includes a single dose of dexamethasone to reduce airway inflammation.
, 4. What is the recommended age for the first dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
(MMR) vaccine according to the CDC schedule?
A. 6 months
B. 12 to 15 months
C. 9 months
D. 4 to 6 years
Answer: B
Rationale: The CDC recommends the first dose of the MMR vaccine be administered
between 12 and 15 months of age. A second dose is then required between 4 and 6 years of
age to ensure long-term immunity. Administering the vaccine earlier than 12 months is
generally avoided due to the presence of maternal antibodies that may interfere with the
immune response.
5. A 10-year-old boy presents with a BMI in the 97th percentile for his age and sex. How
should the FNP categorize this finding?
A. Overweight
B. Obese
C. Severely Obese
D. Healthy weight
Answer: B
Role: Children & Families | Actual Q&A
with Rationale (NSG548 Final Exam) |
Wilkes University
1. A 15-month-old child is brought to the clinic for a routine checkup. Which developmental
milestone is most indicative of normal progression for this age?
A. Walking independently
B. Ability to jump with both feet
C. Using a spoon with full mastery
D. Speaking in four-word sentences
Answer: A
Rationale: By 15 months of age, most children have mastered the ability to walk
independently, which is a key gross motor milestone. Jumping with both feet is typically
expected closer to 2 years of age. Mastery of utensil use and complex sentence structures
are milestones associated with older toddlers and preschool-aged children.
2. During a well-child visit for an 18-month-old, the FNP administers the M-CHAT-R. What is
the primary purpose of this screening tool?
A. To identify signs of autism spectrum disorder
B. To assess for gross motor delays
,C. To screen for iron deficiency anemia
D. To evaluate language development exclusively
Answer: A
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers, Revised (M-CHAT-R) is a
validated screening tool used to identify children at risk for autism spectrum disorder. It is
specifically designed for toddlers between 16 and 30 months of age. Early identification
through this tool allows for prompt referral to specialized services and early intervention
programs.
3. An 8-year-old child presents with a ‘barking’ cough and inspiratory stridor. Which diagnosis
is most likely given these clinical findings?
A. Croup (Laryngotracheobronchitis)
B. Acute Bronchiolitis
C. Epiglottitis
D. Bacterial Tracheitis
Answer: A
Rationale: Croup, or laryngotracheobronchitis, is characterized by a distinctive barking
cough and inspiratory stridor due to subglottic swelling. Epiglottitis typically presents with
high fever, drooling, and a ‘tripod’ position rather than a barky cough. Proper management
often includes a single dose of dexamethasone to reduce airway inflammation.
, 4. What is the recommended age for the first dose of the Measles, Mumps, and Rubella
(MMR) vaccine according to the CDC schedule?
A. 6 months
B. 12 to 15 months
C. 9 months
D. 4 to 6 years
Answer: B
Rationale: The CDC recommends the first dose of the MMR vaccine be administered
between 12 and 15 months of age. A second dose is then required between 4 and 6 years of
age to ensure long-term immunity. Administering the vaccine earlier than 12 months is
generally avoided due to the presence of maternal antibodies that may interfere with the
immune response.
5. A 10-year-old boy presents with a BMI in the 97th percentile for his age and sex. How
should the FNP categorize this finding?
A. Overweight
B. Obese
C. Severely Obese
D. Healthy weight
Answer: B
