EFMB CORRECT TEST PAPER 2026 QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔Blast injuries, especially those related to __________, present a unique bloodborne
pathogen risk if an impaled body part is introduced into the trauma patient. - ✔✔suicide
bomber attacks
✔✔T/F: The risk of transmission for human immunodeficiency virus is considered very
high after blast injury and generally warrants immediate action regardless of the region
of operation. - ✔✔FALSE. The risk of HIV is considered VERY LOW after blast injury
and generally warrants NO ACTION.
✔✔For a patient that sustained injuries from a suicide bomber, testing for Hepatitis B
virus (HBV) and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) should be obtained __________
and up to six (6) months post-exposure. - ✔✔at the time of exposure
✔✔Which role of care should have a designated Infection Prevention and Control
Officer? - ✔✔Roles 2 & 3
✔✔All facilities responsible for trauma care should monitor adherence to __________
as listed in the Joint Trauma System (JTS) guidelines for infection prevention after
combat-related injuries and present rates to providers regularly. - ✔✔antimicrobial
prophylaxis regimens
✔✔Section 7: Inhalation Injury & Toxic Industrial Chemical Exposure - ✔✔-
✔✔What substance is NOT a highly water soluble irritant? - ✔✔Oxides of Nitrogen &
Phosgene
✔✔Treatment for chlorine inhalation includes... - ✔✔1. Skin Decontamination
2. Supplemental Oxygen as Necessary
3. Beta Agonists
,4. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) Ventilatory Techniques
✔✔Which chemical irritant has a sweet, pleasant smell of mown hay? - ✔✔Phosgene
✔✔Which chemical irritant may produce a severe cough with laryngospasm when
exposed to high concentrations? - ✔✔Phosgene
✔✔Which chemical irritant smells like rotten eggs? - ✔✔Hydrogen Sulfide
✔✔Which chemical irritant produces a "knockdown" effect, a sudden loss of
consciousness, when exposed to high concentrations? - ✔✔Hydrogen Sulfide
✔✔Which chemical irritant forms a strong base which can cause mucosal irritation,
severe upper airway irritation, and alkali skin burns when reacting with water? -
✔✔Ammonia
✔✔The triad of severe cyanide toxicity consists of... - ✔✔1. Hypotension
2. Altered Mental Status
3. Lactic Acidosis (Commonly > 8 mmol/L)
"HAL"
✔✔Which of the following is the most commonly available antidote for cyanide
poisoning? - ✔✔Hydroxocobalamin (Sold as Cyanokit)
✔✔T/F: High index of suspicion must be present when treating patients exposed to
carbon monoxide as elevated CO may be present despite normal PaO2 and SpO2
readings. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔Section 8: Frozen & Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells - ✔✔-
✔✔Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells are derived from __________ mL of whole blood
collected in Citrate/Phosphate/Dextrose or Citrate/Phosphate/Dextrose/Adenine
collection bags. - ✔✔450-500
✔✔Red Blood Cells are stored for up to six (6) days at 1-6 °C before being frozen in a
cryoprotectant (40% w/v glycerol), and stored in the frozen state at minus 65 °C or
colder for up to __________. - ✔✔10 years
✔✔T/F: Each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs) should be considered
equivalent to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within six (6) days of collection
and have a 14-day shelf-life upon deglycerolization. - ✔✔TRUE
,✔✔What are the clinical indications for use of each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells
(DRBCs)? - ✔✔Primary Indication - As a supplement to liquid RBCs during surge
periods of increased transfusion requirements in order to decrease casualty
hemorrhagic morbidity and mortality.
Each Unit of DRBCs:
1. Should be considered equivalent to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within
6 days of collection and have a 14-day shelf life upon deglycerolization.
2. Contains more than 80% of the RBCs present in the original unit of blood
3. Provides the same physiologic benefits as liquid RBCs.
4. Carries the same expectation for post-transfusion survival as liquid stored RBCs.
5. Contains significantly lower concentrations of proteins associated with non-hemolytic
transfusion reactions.
✔✔How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a plasma thawer? - ✔✔About
35 Minutes
✔✔How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a 42 °C water bath? -
✔✔About 45 Minutes
✔✔Section 9: Interfacility Transport of Patients Between Theater Medical Treatment
Facilities - ✔✔-
✔✔Optimal, but not necessarily definitive patient stabilization before transport is critical
and encompasses four (4) connected elements. What are these elements? - ✔✔1.
Injuries - Actual & Potential (e.g., Spinal Instability) Must Be Controlled
2. Resuscitation Must be Optimized but May be Ongoing
3. Other Treatments Besides Resuscitative Measures Should be at Steady-State, Not
Requiring Dynamic, Complex, or Life-Preserving Adjustment En Route
4. Deterioration Requiring En Route Intervention Must be Anticipated and Prevented
with Risk Mitigation Procedures Prior to Departure
✔✔T/F: Medical capability is the quality or state of being able to provide the expected
and required medical services and support to the casualty. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔__________ transport is required when "the patient has a critical illness or injury that
acutely impairs one (1) or more vital organ systems such that there is a high probability
of imminent or life-threatening deterioration in the patient's condition during transport -
✔✔Critical Care
✔✔The gold standard for unstable patient transport is movement with critical care
capability led by a __________ who is qualified, experienced, and proficient at critical
care transport. - ✔✔Physician
, ✔✔T/F: Intermediate en route care should be initiated for a patient that does not require
critical care, but is in need of a dedicated medical attendant with at least the knowledge
and skills equivalent to a paramedic as defined by the National Emergency Medical
Services (EMS) Scope of Practice Model. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔Who assumes risk of reduced capability when a medical evacuation organization is
not capable of providing the required intratheater en route care capability? - ✔✔Theater
Commander
✔✔T/F: Well trained teams improve outcomes so en route care teams who train
together prior to operational assignment may optimize patient outcomes. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔What are examples of specific medical materials designated as patient movement
items (PMI)? - ✔✔1. Ventilators
2. Patient Monitors
3. Pulse Oximeters
4. Suction Machines
5. IV Pumps
6. Oversized Litters
7. Negative Pressure Wound Vacuums
8. Pneumatic Compression Stockings/Devices
✔✔T/F: The Senior military person (or designated on-ground mission Commander)
present in coordination with the Senior medical person determines when to request
medical evacuation and the precedence assigned to the patient for evacuation. -
✔✔TRUE
✔✔The MIST report was recently incorporated into the 9-line medical evacuation
request. MIST stands for: - ✔✔M - Mechanism of Injury
I - Type of Injury
S- Signs (Vital Signs)
T - Treatment Given
✔✔T/F: The Interfacility Transport of Patients Between Theater Medical Treatment
Facilities Clinical Practice Guideline defines medical direction as the direct technical
authority to determine capability, promulgate medical policy, and the authority to enforce
the standard of care through quality assurance with local privileging actions of individual
en route care providers. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔__________ medical direction includes protocol development and review, continuing
education of prehospital providers, and quality improvement activities. - ✔✔Offline
✔✔The Commander of the unit assigned to perform medical evacuation should appoint
the unit's __________ as the medical director. - ✔✔Physician
AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔Blast injuries, especially those related to __________, present a unique bloodborne
pathogen risk if an impaled body part is introduced into the trauma patient. - ✔✔suicide
bomber attacks
✔✔T/F: The risk of transmission for human immunodeficiency virus is considered very
high after blast injury and generally warrants immediate action regardless of the region
of operation. - ✔✔FALSE. The risk of HIV is considered VERY LOW after blast injury
and generally warrants NO ACTION.
✔✔For a patient that sustained injuries from a suicide bomber, testing for Hepatitis B
virus (HBV) and Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) should be obtained __________
and up to six (6) months post-exposure. - ✔✔at the time of exposure
✔✔Which role of care should have a designated Infection Prevention and Control
Officer? - ✔✔Roles 2 & 3
✔✔All facilities responsible for trauma care should monitor adherence to __________
as listed in the Joint Trauma System (JTS) guidelines for infection prevention after
combat-related injuries and present rates to providers regularly. - ✔✔antimicrobial
prophylaxis regimens
✔✔Section 7: Inhalation Injury & Toxic Industrial Chemical Exposure - ✔✔-
✔✔What substance is NOT a highly water soluble irritant? - ✔✔Oxides of Nitrogen &
Phosgene
✔✔Treatment for chlorine inhalation includes... - ✔✔1. Skin Decontamination
2. Supplemental Oxygen as Necessary
3. Beta Agonists
,4. Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS) Ventilatory Techniques
✔✔Which chemical irritant has a sweet, pleasant smell of mown hay? - ✔✔Phosgene
✔✔Which chemical irritant may produce a severe cough with laryngospasm when
exposed to high concentrations? - ✔✔Phosgene
✔✔Which chemical irritant smells like rotten eggs? - ✔✔Hydrogen Sulfide
✔✔Which chemical irritant produces a "knockdown" effect, a sudden loss of
consciousness, when exposed to high concentrations? - ✔✔Hydrogen Sulfide
✔✔Which chemical irritant forms a strong base which can cause mucosal irritation,
severe upper airway irritation, and alkali skin burns when reacting with water? -
✔✔Ammonia
✔✔The triad of severe cyanide toxicity consists of... - ✔✔1. Hypotension
2. Altered Mental Status
3. Lactic Acidosis (Commonly > 8 mmol/L)
"HAL"
✔✔Which of the following is the most commonly available antidote for cyanide
poisoning? - ✔✔Hydroxocobalamin (Sold as Cyanokit)
✔✔T/F: High index of suspicion must be present when treating patients exposed to
carbon monoxide as elevated CO may be present despite normal PaO2 and SpO2
readings. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔Section 8: Frozen & Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells - ✔✔-
✔✔Deglycerolized Red Blood Cells are derived from __________ mL of whole blood
collected in Citrate/Phosphate/Dextrose or Citrate/Phosphate/Dextrose/Adenine
collection bags. - ✔✔450-500
✔✔Red Blood Cells are stored for up to six (6) days at 1-6 °C before being frozen in a
cryoprotectant (40% w/v glycerol), and stored in the frozen state at minus 65 °C or
colder for up to __________. - ✔✔10 years
✔✔T/F: Each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells (DRBCs) should be considered
equivalent to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within six (6) days of collection
and have a 14-day shelf-life upon deglycerolization. - ✔✔TRUE
,✔✔What are the clinical indications for use of each unit of deglycerolized red blood cells
(DRBCs)? - ✔✔Primary Indication - As a supplement to liquid RBCs during surge
periods of increased transfusion requirements in order to decrease casualty
hemorrhagic morbidity and mortality.
Each Unit of DRBCs:
1. Should be considered equivalent to a fresh unit of RBCs since they are frozen within
6 days of collection and have a 14-day shelf life upon deglycerolization.
2. Contains more than 80% of the RBCs present in the original unit of blood
3. Provides the same physiologic benefits as liquid RBCs.
4. Carries the same expectation for post-transfusion survival as liquid stored RBCs.
5. Contains significantly lower concentrations of proteins associated with non-hemolytic
transfusion reactions.
✔✔How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a plasma thawer? - ✔✔About
35 Minutes
✔✔How long does it take to thaw frozen red blood cells in a 42 °C water bath? -
✔✔About 45 Minutes
✔✔Section 9: Interfacility Transport of Patients Between Theater Medical Treatment
Facilities - ✔✔-
✔✔Optimal, but not necessarily definitive patient stabilization before transport is critical
and encompasses four (4) connected elements. What are these elements? - ✔✔1.
Injuries - Actual & Potential (e.g., Spinal Instability) Must Be Controlled
2. Resuscitation Must be Optimized but May be Ongoing
3. Other Treatments Besides Resuscitative Measures Should be at Steady-State, Not
Requiring Dynamic, Complex, or Life-Preserving Adjustment En Route
4. Deterioration Requiring En Route Intervention Must be Anticipated and Prevented
with Risk Mitigation Procedures Prior to Departure
✔✔T/F: Medical capability is the quality or state of being able to provide the expected
and required medical services and support to the casualty. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔__________ transport is required when "the patient has a critical illness or injury that
acutely impairs one (1) or more vital organ systems such that there is a high probability
of imminent or life-threatening deterioration in the patient's condition during transport -
✔✔Critical Care
✔✔The gold standard for unstable patient transport is movement with critical care
capability led by a __________ who is qualified, experienced, and proficient at critical
care transport. - ✔✔Physician
, ✔✔T/F: Intermediate en route care should be initiated for a patient that does not require
critical care, but is in need of a dedicated medical attendant with at least the knowledge
and skills equivalent to a paramedic as defined by the National Emergency Medical
Services (EMS) Scope of Practice Model. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔Who assumes risk of reduced capability when a medical evacuation organization is
not capable of providing the required intratheater en route care capability? - ✔✔Theater
Commander
✔✔T/F: Well trained teams improve outcomes so en route care teams who train
together prior to operational assignment may optimize patient outcomes. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔What are examples of specific medical materials designated as patient movement
items (PMI)? - ✔✔1. Ventilators
2. Patient Monitors
3. Pulse Oximeters
4. Suction Machines
5. IV Pumps
6. Oversized Litters
7. Negative Pressure Wound Vacuums
8. Pneumatic Compression Stockings/Devices
✔✔T/F: The Senior military person (or designated on-ground mission Commander)
present in coordination with the Senior medical person determines when to request
medical evacuation and the precedence assigned to the patient for evacuation. -
✔✔TRUE
✔✔The MIST report was recently incorporated into the 9-line medical evacuation
request. MIST stands for: - ✔✔M - Mechanism of Injury
I - Type of Injury
S- Signs (Vital Signs)
T - Treatment Given
✔✔T/F: The Interfacility Transport of Patients Between Theater Medical Treatment
Facilities Clinical Practice Guideline defines medical direction as the direct technical
authority to determine capability, promulgate medical policy, and the authority to enforce
the standard of care through quality assurance with local privileging actions of individual
en route care providers. - ✔✔TRUE
✔✔__________ medical direction includes protocol development and review, continuing
education of prehospital providers, and quality improvement activities. - ✔✔Offline
✔✔The Commander of the unit assigned to perform medical evacuation should appoint
the unit's __________ as the medical director. - ✔✔Physician
